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Exam Code: CAT-221
Exam Name: CA Clarity PPM v13.x Professional Certification Exam
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Exam Code: CAT-060
Exam Name: CA Spectrum Infrastructure Manager r9
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Exam Code: CAT-120
Exam Name: CA Application Performance Management Administrator Exam
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NO.1 Which statement about CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domains is TRUE?
A. A domain cannot contain applications.
B. A domain can contain multiple applications.
C. A domain can only contain a single application.
D. An application managed by CA CEM is known as a domain.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When creating a Dashboard for a series of metrics that are all based on percentile values, what is the
MOST appropriate Data option for these values.?
A. Choose the Auto Expand option on the Scale tab.
B. Choose Show Minimum and Maximum Values on the Miscellaneous tab.
C. Choose the Pin At option on the Scale tab and set the Minimum and Maximum values at 0 and
100.
D. Place a check in the Enable Filter box on the Sort/Filter tab and Filter by the Metrics with topmost
values of 100.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When creating a report, where do you specify the metrics on which the report is based?
A. Text tab
B. Data Properties tab
C. Display Properties tab
D. Default Data Properties tab
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which transaction recording methods are available in CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)?
(Choose three)
A. Agent
B. Script
C. Manual
D. Automatic
E. Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM)
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: CAT-241
Exam Name: CA Clarity PPM v13.x Business Analyst
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Exam Code: CAT-080
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Exam Code: CAT-020
Exam Name: CA eHealth r6 Professional
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NO.1 You are setting up financial data in CA Clarity PPM. Which step is only needed if you are
implementing chargeback functionality?
A. Define classifications.
B. Create inputtype codes.
C. Create a cost/rate matrix.
D. Define General Ledger (GL) codes.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You can monitor a releases performance on the Release Dashboard page. Which portlets are
found on the Release Dashboard page? (Choose three)
A. Scorecard
B. Related Releases
C. Related Release Plans
D. Requirements ByTheme
E. Requirements By Priority
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you
set the status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the
project.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which task can you perform using the Proxy tab on the Account Settings page?
A. Enable substitute processes.
B. Configure an Open Workbench connection.
C. Configure advanced settings for notifications.
D. Enable other users to respond to your action items.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have developed a new process and transported it to a production environment using XML
Open Gateway (XOG). To make the process operational, which step do you need to perform?
A. Change Mode to Active.
B. Validate the process only.
C. Run the Execute a Process job.
D. Validate and activate the process.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CAT-280
Exam Name: CA AppLogic r3 Administrator Exam
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Exam Code: 270-131
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Exam Code: CAT-100
Exam Name: CA Application Performance Management Professional Exam
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NO.1 The WS_API enables you to perform useful functions, such as:
A. Migrating users from CA AppLogic versions before r3.0.
B. Implementing a WebX4 Linux cluster as an assembly of appliances.
C. Integrating CA AppLogic with CA Access Control to protect your web applications.
D. Invoking commands through the RESTful application programming interface (API).
Answer: D

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NO.2 When you configure authentication for the Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC):
A. Make sure that all users access the BFC using the BFC shell only.
B. Make sure that the bfcaadmin user has read-only access to the database replica directory.
C. Do not change the default root
password, because this is required for a correct configuration.
D. Add any necessary public SSH keys for users that will access the BFC to the /root/.ssh
/authorized_keys
file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Before removing a server from the grid or replacing a hard disk, to retrieve any virtual volume
streams off the server, which command should you run?
A. vol clean
B. vol scoop
C. vol migrate
D. vol reinstate
Answer: C

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NO.4 CA AppLogic is able to:
A. Automatically recover from VN failures with zero downtime.
B. Manage all applications, servers, and storage with an iPad application.
C. Handle server or network hardware failures automatically without data loss.
D. Manage external systems, such as Storage Area Networks (SANs), networks, and grids to redirect
failed applications elsewhere.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which step should you perform when you provision the WS_API?
A. Edit the input_template.cfg file.
B. To configure the application, start it immediately after you provision it.
C. Run the vol manage ws_api_instance:data command and edit the vdcs.conf file.
D. When prompted for a password for Secure Shell (SSH) access, enter ws_api_usr.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which guidelines will help you to maximize security for the CA AppLogic platform? (Choose
three)
A. Secure private keys with a passphrase.
B. Ensure that only CA AppLogic users have direct access to commodity enterprise servers.
C. When using a global directory service, do not provide access to the implicit local group all .
D. When using a global directory service, check the strength of the passwords used in the service.
E. Use password authentication only for Secure Shell (SSH) access to the Backbone Fabric Controller
(BFC) server.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 The Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC) should be accessible to all users who will be creating
grids or maintaining the BFC. You should allocate one RFC1918 range to use for backbone addresses.
Which range is valid for this purpose?
A. 12.64.0.0/8
B. 30.128.0.0/32
C. 142.120.0.0/16
D. 192.168.64.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.8 In CA AppLogic, a class definition consists of a class descriptor and one or more class volumes.
What does a class volume contain?
A. A reference to a storage Logical Unit Number (LUN)
B. All the software required to boot and operate an instance of this class
C. A reference to the IP address or host name of the commodity server on which the object is stored
D. The characteristics of the appliance as a component, including its inputs, outputs, configuration
properties, and their default values and hardware resources
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-240
Exam Name: CA Clarity PPM v12 Business Analyst Exam
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Exam Code: CAT-440
Exam Name: CA Performance Management r2.x Professional Exam
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Exam Code: CAT-180
Exam Name: CA Service Desk Manager r12 Professional Exam
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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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NO.2 NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Between the late 60's and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects
and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial
buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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NO.5 The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the
presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection
Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
Answer: A

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NO.7 A "wye" is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.8 In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements
address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of
the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.1 How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of interoperability
among supporting technologies and vendor
solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and deployed
for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in a way
that is measurable and manageable and
meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems are
coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into information
technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a roadmap for the
creation and deployment of shared
services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.3 Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled interfaces
between the consumers of functionality and
the applications that represent that functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management that
facilitate the delivery of enterprise
functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications into
interoperable, standards-based services
that can be combined and reused quickly to meet business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software development
methodologies, principally based on Web
Services, which may be incorporated into enterprise software engineering to provide information
technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or
Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise architecture may be
drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best practices-based
approach to constructing a modern
enterprise.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not benefit
from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as
services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality
among them is essentially built into their construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded
in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among them cannot
be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the exposing of
functionality from those systems as
services would be an extremely complex operation.
Answer: ACE

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NO.1 What comprises a failure code?
A. Failure, affect, fix
B. Issue, reason, resolution
C. Problem, cause, remedy
D. Situation, impact, solution
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the definition of a work package?
A. It groups existing work orders under a new parent work order.
B. It is a preventive maintenance work order hierarchy that has been created from a route.
C. It is a work order linked to all the originating services requests for the work order and is created from
the Related Records tab.
D. It is a group of work orders in Waiting to be Scheduled status that are the responsibility of one person
and is created in the Assignment Manager application.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which method is used to view labor hours, costs, and material costs for a particular work order?
A. from the Work Order Tracking application, select the Cost tab
B. from the Work Order Tracking application, go to the Select Action menu and select View > Costs
C. from the Actuals tab of Work Order Tracking application, download and summarize each of the table
windows for Labor, Materials. Services, and Tools
D. navigate to the Cost Management application, query for the work order in question to view estimated
and actual hours and costs for labor in addition to estimated and actual costs for materials and service
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does an active workflow process define?
A. The flow of work in Application Designer
B. The process to add an attribute to an application
C. The different work to be performed by the lead craft
D. The different paths that a record can take as it moves through a business process
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the purpose of commodity codes?
A. To group like items for issue
B. To group like items for purchasing
C. To group like items for classification
D. To group like items for asset bill of material
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which function is performed in the Quick Reporting application?
A. Create failure code hierarchies
B. Create job plans and safety plans
C. Create preventive maintenance schedules
D. Report actual labor, materials, and tools used in the work
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has an escalation that requires notifications to go to both Marie Smith and her supervisor
Lee Tsumi. How can both users be included as recipients on a communication template?
A. Create a role for both Marie and Lee
B. Create a Person Group with Marie as the primary
C. Add both e-mail addresses on the Recipients tab
D. Include both user e-mails in the Recipient field separated by a colon
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which IBM Maximo Asset Management location status is necessary to associate a location with a
system.?
A. Active
B. Ready
C. Operating
D. Decommissioned
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as
a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a
WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,
create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for
their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of
the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of
the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of
the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal
server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be
able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the
installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during
the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical
clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources;
horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering
takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system;
horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical
clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company
internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing
content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the
best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to
replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP
support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.8 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory
Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate,
certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct
user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere
Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.1 How many different ways can tracing be enabled?
A. 0; tracing is enabled by default
B. 1; tracing can be enabled by using the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console
C. 2; tracing can be enabled by using the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console or by
using the WebSphere Portal page named Enable Tracing.
D. 3; tracing can be enabled by using the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console, the
WebSphere Portal page named Enable Tracing, or by using the log.properties file.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tony wants to migrate the web content data from WebSphere Portal V6.O to
WebSphere Portal V7.O.
Which of the following options does he need to do?
A. He needs to run the wcmmigrate all-data task to migrate the web content data.
B. He needs to run the WPmigrate migrate-wcm task to migrate the web content data.
C. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere Portal V6.O JCR repository and run the
ConfigEngine
connect-database task to connect to the copy of the JCR repository.
D. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere here Portal V6.O JCR repository and run a
ConfigEngine task
to connect to the copy of the JCR repository.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is not supported in a WSRP rendering portlet.?
A. Secure access to content
B. Use of authoring tools component
C. Use of file resource component
D. Use of Taxonomy component
Answer: B

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NO.4 Site management has been enabled for the GreenCo portal environment. Wendy
creates a page and
goes to Site Management in Administrator and publishes it to the production server. The
publish operation
fails. What has Wendy failed to do?
A. Give the page a unique name.
B. Remove the portlets from the page.
C. Run the JACL script $update-page.
D. Page locks exist on the page, she needs to unlock the page.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following tools would allow all external web applications to be
integrated with IBM
WebSphere Portal?
A. Web application integrator
B. Lotus Mashups Center
C. WebSphere Web Enabler
D. IBM My Places portlet
Answer: A

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NO.1 A deployment professional needs to install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced
V7.5.1 on an
existing installation of WebSphere Application Server. How should the deployment
professional do this?
A. Select typical installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced V7.5.1.
B. Select typical installation option and import WebSphere Application Server into Installation
Manager,
then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
C. Select custom installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced V7.5.1.
D. Select custom installation option and install a new WebSphere Application Server version
into
Installation Manager, then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A deployment professional has just completed a custom installation and needs to
examine the
installation details. What should the deployment professional use.?
A. Default application
B. First Steps Console
C. Installation Verification Tool
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: C

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NO.3 A deployment professional has to apply interim fixes to IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced
V7.5.1. The server where the fixes must be applied does not have an internet connection. All
the fixes
were downloaded to a local directory. What is the next step the deployment professional
must do to apply
the fixes?
A. Modify the repository.config file to point to each fix.
B. Apply each fix detected in the directory using the "Install" wizard.
C. Copy the fixes to a maintenance directory and point to this directory.
D. Use the Installation Manager to add a repository for each fix to be applied.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A deployment professional has been tasked with performing a typical IBM Business
Process Manager
Advanced installation with all of the latest fixes for a proof of concept. The installation is to be
performed
on a 64-bit Linux system using the Oracle database. The environment used for the
installation is on an
isolated network with no internet connectivity. What task should the deployment professional
perform to
ensure a successful installation?
A. Pre-create the needed database.
B. Ensure the 32-bit version of the product is used.
C. Prepare multiple machines for the clustered environment.
D. Verify the Installation Manager search service repositories option during install and update
is selected.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A deployment professional has successfully completed an installation of IBM Business
Process
Manager Advanced V7.5.1 and has verified that the Process Center has started and is ready
for use by a
development team. Several developers now need to begin development of a process flow
using the IBM
Process Designer tool, and have provided the deployment professional with access to their
development
machines. How should the deployment professional proceed to begin installation of the IBM
Process
Designer tool for the developers?
A. Use IBM Installation Manager to install the IBM Process Designer.
B. Download the IBM Process Designer from the IBM Support website.
C. Install IBM Integration Designer which includes the IBM Process Designer.
D. Connect to the Process Center in a browser, and click the IBM Process Designer
Download option.
Answer: D

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NO.1 A developer wants to code the following statements in an SQL procedure:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A user-defined function was created using the statement shown in the exhibit. Which additional option can
be added to the CREATE FUNCTION statement to tell the optimizer that the function does not always
return the same results for a given argument value?
A. NO EXTERNAL ACTION
B. NOT FENCED
C. NOT DETERMINISTIC
D. STATIC DISPATCH
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given the following SQL:
Which statement is incorrect?
A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result
set.
B. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which procedure demonstrates the correct use of dynamic SQL?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count1 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=?
WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count,
item_code; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count2 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN new_count INTEGER, IN
item_code INTEGER) BEGIN DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET
quantity_on_hand=? WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE
v_stmt1 USING tab_name, new_count, item_code; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count4 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN col_name1
VARCHAR(128), IN col_name2 VARCHAR(128), IN new_countINTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET ?=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING tab_name, col_name1, new_count, col_name2,
item_code; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count5 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); DECLARE v_col_name VARCHAR(128); SET v_col_name =
'item_number'; SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count, v_col_name, item_code; END
Answer: A

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NO.5 The CREATE PROCEDURE statement shown below was executed against a database called MYDB.
CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 INTEGER, OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 SMALLINT)
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc'; END Which two CREATE PROCEDURE statements, when executed against the
same database, will succeed? (Choose two.)
A. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 INTEGER) BEGIN SET p2 = 123;
END
B. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 INTEGER, OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 CHAR(4))
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc'; END
C. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 INTEGER, OUT p3 SMALLINT)
BEGIN SET p2 = 123; END
D. CREATE PROCEDUREotherschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 CHAR(4))
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc'; END
E. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 NUMBER, OUT p2 NUMBER, OUT p3 NUMBER)
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc';END
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 The CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE statement is similar semantically to which of the following
combined statements?
A. DROP and CREATE PROCEDURE
B. ALTER and CREATE PROCEDURE
C. UPDATE and CREATE PROCEDURE
D. DROP and ALTER PROCEDURE
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement correctly describes characteristics of external functions?
A. External functions cannot return tables.
B. All cursors opened within an external function should stay open until the database isquiesced.
C. Scratchpads can be used to allocate dynamic memory required for multiple function invocations.
D. Transactions can be terminated within external functions.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A developer needs to create a user-defined function that will return a list of employees who work in a
particular department. Which statement will successfully create a function that meets this objective?
A. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM
employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno
B. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE DYNAMIC RESULT
SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
C. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT
empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept =
dept_employees.deptno
D. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS
SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Assessment: High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2
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NO.1 What will allow an administrator to mirror shared volume groups between two sites that are
only linked by TCP/IP?
A. GLVM Disk
B. MetroMirror Disk
C. PowerHA 7 Network Share Disk
D. Cluster Aware AIX (CAA) Share Disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator is configuring a4-node cluster to host 3 instances of their production
application in an N+1 fallover design. Each instance will be in a separate resource group, and all 4
nodes will be participating nodes in each resource group.
Under normal circumstances each node only hosts one instance of the application. Whichever are
the first three nodes to join the cluster become production, and the fourth node will be the standby.
How must the resource group startup policy be configured to accomplish this?
A. Online On Home Node Only
B. Online On All Available Nodes
C. Online On First Available Node
D. Online Using Node Distribution Policy
Answer: D

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NO.3 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the
HMC for a standby node in that cluster:
How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application runs with the minimum
hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: C

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NO.4 A PowerHA 6 cluster has missed too many heartbeats during a large disk write operation, and
has triggered the deadman switch. Which tunable can help ensure that HA Cluster Manager
continues to run?
A. I/O Pacing and syncd frequency
B. I/O Pacing and asynchronous I/O
C. Syncd frequency and asynchronous I/O
D. Asynchronous I/O and disk queue_depth
Answer: A

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NO.5 The administrator has written a script "correct_problem.sh" that needs to be run if the
"release_vg_fs" event does not complete successfully.
What should be done to ensure the correct_problem.sh is called a maximum of 3 times if the event
failed?
A. Include a post event of correct_problem.sh and a retry counter of 3
B. Include a custom event of correct_problem.sh and a restart limit of 3
C. Include a retry command of correct_problem.sh and an event counter of 3
D. Include a recovery command of correct_problem.sh and a recovery counter of 3
Answer: D

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NO.6 Based on the following output from a PowerHA 7 cluster node, what else can be done to
provide higher availability?
A. Enable fast failure detection.
B. Mirror rootvg across local disk.
C. Mirror caavg_private across shared disk.
D. Change non mirrored volume group disks to hot spare using the chpv command
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the two types of application monitors that can be created?
A. Process Monitors and Custom Monitors
B. Predefined Monitors and Custom Monitors
C. System Monitors and User Defined Monitors
D. Process Monitors and User Defined Monitors
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has completed installing PowerHA 7 filesets. Which task, or tasks, should be
completed next?
A. Configure cluster topology
B. Configure cluster resources
C. Reboot each PowerHA cluster node
D. Verify and synchronize the cluster
Answer: D

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