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Exam Code: 8002

Exam Name: PRMIA (PRM Certification - Exam II: Mathematical Foundations of Risk Measurement)

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NO.1 The sum of the infinite series 1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+.... equals:
A. 12
B. Infinity
C. 128
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the 40th term in the following series: 4, 14, 30, 52, ­ ?
A. 240
B. 4598
C. 4840
D. 4960
Answer: C

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NO.3 The natural logarithm of x is:.?
A. the inverse function of exp(x)
B. log(e)
C. always greater than x, for x>0
D. 46
Answer: A

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NO.4 Solve the simultaneous linear equations: x + 2y - 2 = 0 and y - 3x = 8
A. x = 1, y = 0.5
B. x = -2, y = 2
C. x = 2, y = 0
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Every linear function is also a quadratic function.
B. A function is defined by its domain together with its action.
C. For finite and small domains, the action of a function may be specified by a list.
D. A function is a rule that assigns to every value x at least one value of y.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You intend to invest $100 000 for five years. Four different interest payment options are available.
Choose the interest option that yields the highest return over the five year period.
A. a lump-sum payment of $22 500 on maturity (in five years)
B. an annually compounded rate of 4.15%
C. a quarterly-compounded rate of 4.1%
D. a continuously-compounded rate of 4%
Answer: C

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NO.7 For each of the following functions, indicate whether its graph is concave or convex:
Y = 7x2 + 3x + 9
Y = 6 ln(3x)
Y = exp(-4x)
A. concave, concave, concave
B. concave, convex, convex
C. convex, concave, concave
D. convex, convex, concave
Answer: C

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NO.8 For a quadratic equation, which of the following is FALSE?
A. If the discriminant is negative, there are no real solutions
B. If the discriminant is zero, there is only one solution
C. If the discriminant is negative there are two different real solutions
D. If the discriminant is positive there are two different real solutions
Answer: C

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NO.9 Let a, b and c be real numbers. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The commutativity of multiplication is defined by
B. The existence of negatives is defined by
C. The distributivity of multiplication is defined by
D. The associativity of multiplication is defined by
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Discrete and continuous compounding produce the same results if the discount rate is positive.
B. Continuous compounding is the better method because it results in higher present values compared to
discrete compounding.
C. Continuous compounding can be thought as making the compounding period infinitesimally small.
D. The constant plays an important role in the mathematical description of continuous compounding.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following properties is exhibited by multiplication, but not by addition?
A. associativity
B. commutativity
C. distributivity
D. invertibility
Answer: C

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NO.12 Identify the type and common element (that is, common ratio or common difference) of the following
sequence: 6, 12, 24
A. arithmetic sequence, common difference 2
B. arithmetic sequence, common ratio 2
C. geometric sequence, common ratio 2
D. geometric sequence, common ratio 3
Answer: C

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NO.13 You invest $2m in a bank savings account with a constant interest rate of 5% p.a. What is the value of
the investment in 2 years time if interest is compounded quarterly?
A. $2,208,972
B. $2,210,342
C. $2.205,000
D. None of them
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the simplest form of this expression: log2(165/2)
A. 10
B. 32
C. 5/2 + log2(16)
D. log2 (5/2) + log2(16)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is not a sequence?
A. , , , ­ , , o
B. , , , , ­
C. , , , , , , ­
D. 30
Answer: D

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NO.16 You invest $100 000 for 3 years at a continuously compounded rate of 3%. At the end of 3 years, you
redeem the investment. Taxes of 22% are applied at the time of redemption. What is your approximate
after-tax profit from the investment, rounded to $10?
A. $9420
B. $7350
C. $7230
D. $7100
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the provided answers solves this system of equations?
2y
3x = 3y +x
y2 + x2 = 68
A. x = 1; y = square root of 67
B. x = 2; y = 8
C. x = 2; y = -8
D. x = -2; y = -8
Answer: C

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NO.18 Find the roots, if they exist in the real numbers, of the quadratic equation
A. 4 and -2
B. -4 and 2
C. 1 and 0
D. No real roots
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence: 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ­ ?
A. 1 048 574
B. 1 048 595
C. 2 097 170
D. 2 097 172
Answer: C

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NO.20 When a number is written with a fraction as an exponent, such as , which of the following is the correct
computation?
A. Take the square-root of 75 and raise it to the 5th power
B. Divide 75 by 2, then raise it to the 5th power
C. Multiply 75 by 2.5
D. Square 75, then take the fifth root of it
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PRINCE2

Exam Name: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)

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NO.1 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project
Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, a
C. c, a, b
D. c, b, a
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.
B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.
D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?
A. Allocation of priority
B. Logging
C. Decision on what type of issue
D. Impact Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.4 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?
A. Risk Management
B. Project Closure
C. Change Control
D. Project Initiation
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?
A. Has an organisation structure
B. Produces defined and measurable business products
C. Uses a defined amount of resources
D. Uses a defined set of techniques
Answer: D

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NO.6 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
A. Quality
B. Specialist
C. Technical
D. Management
Answer: D

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NO.7 In "Closing a Project" (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
A. To provide useful lessons to future projects
B. Never throw anything away.
C. This material may be needed by Programme Management
D. To permit any future audit of the project's actions
Answer: D

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NO.8 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is
A. The sum total of its products
B. The interim products
C. Its product description
D. The single end-product
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?
A. The change-over to operational use of the product
B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
C. The specification of the product
D. Finalisation of the business case
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.
D. To triger 'Starting up a Project'.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is
working on it?
A. Work Package
B. Product Description
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to...
A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project
B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning
D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings
Answer: D

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NO.13 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
A. Weekly
B. At Exception Assessments
C. At Checkpoint Meetings
D. On a regular basis
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"
A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the more common term used in PRINCE2 for"deliverable"?
A. Item
B. Package
C. Product
D. Component
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?
A. Plans
B. Controls
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?
A. When a Project Issue is received
B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint
C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change.?
A. Request Log
B. Daily Log
C. Quality Log
D. Issue Log
Answer: D

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NO.19 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project
Plan?
A. The Project Mandate
B. The Team Plan
C. The Risk Log
D. The Project Brief
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
A. Exception Assessment
B. Highlight Reports
C. Project Closure
D. Work Package Authorisation
Answer: D

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NO.21 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. A fixed-PRICE contract
B. A Customer/Supplier environment
C. A specialist environment
D. A third-party environment
Answer: B

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NO.22 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to
the Project Board?
A. Allowance
B. Contingency
C. Concession
D. Tolerance
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?
A. Prevention
B. Denial
C. Reduction
D. Transference
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
A. Starting Up a Project (SU)
B. Initiating a Project (IP)
C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
D. Controlling a Stage (CS)
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process
"Starting Up a Project"
B. Acompany'sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2
C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company's QMS
D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out
Answer: B

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NO.26 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?
A. Project and stage tolerances
B. Contingency plans
C. A Change Budget
D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates
Answer: C

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NO.27 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,
continuation or termination of the project?
A. Project Initiation Document
B. Business Case
C. End Stage Approval
D. Project Brief
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
A. Product Outline
B. Product Breakdown Structure
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Checklist
Answer: D

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NO.29 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
A. An Exception Report is made
B. A Project Issue is raised
C. An Exception Memo is raised
D. The review is reconvened
Answer: B

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NO.30 Fill in the missing phrase from"a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to......"
A. TheCustomer'sNeds
B. An Agreed Contract
C. The Project Plan
D. A specified Business Case
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GPHR

Exam Name: HRCI (Global Professional in Human Resource)

Exam Code: PHR

Exam Name: HRCI (Professional in Human Resources)

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NO.1 There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may operate
within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR Impact Model.?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B

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NO.2 Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you're to keep abreast of
market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What component of the HR
Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which EEO
Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
Answer: C

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NO.4 Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly
asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to
this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
Answer: A

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NO.5 The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering $80,000
for the starting salary they'll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this scenario an
example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance. You
need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you're the HR Professional for
your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to theemployee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions for
these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document would you
create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the United
States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
Answer: D

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NO.9 As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the process
that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an arbitration process
between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the resolution of the disagreement, by
an arbitrator's interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C

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NO.10 Kelly's organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women's restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization.
Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII
of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?
A. This is an example of an exception by bonafide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying
and titled job for the men's restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C

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NO.12 The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However, the
JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees. What
danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
Answer: B

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NO.13 During the organization of a union, it's possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible to
vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
Answer: C

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NO.14 As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected
class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
Answer: A

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NO.15 Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran interviews this
candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
Answer: A

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NO.16 As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D

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NO.17 The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees
on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law affects organizations
having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 perparticipant, per month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you'll use and encourage in the series
of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for the graphic
designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example of what type of
validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
Answer: D

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NO.20 As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee's rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
Answer: A

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Exam Code: adwords-fundamentals

Exam Name: Google (Google Search Fundamentals Exam Practice Test)

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NO.1 Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following
options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
Answer: A

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NO.2 Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn't have image
editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google
Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What term is assigned to the concept of measuring your profit that you've made from advertising
compared to how much you've spent on that advertising?
A. ROI
B. Sunk costs
C. CTR
D. CPM
Answer: A

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NO.4 Linda has a discount clothing store and she'd like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her
store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google
AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your client wants to use Google AdWords' ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video
ad for your customer?
A. You'll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You'll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best
explanation of Google's double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or
similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business
operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the
advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar
businesses.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she's hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery.
She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad - rather than
advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for
Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
Answer: D

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NO.8 Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where
the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the
geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
Answer: B

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NO.9 You're serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client,
is new to Web-based business sales and he's concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob
the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his
ad for a short period of time. What's the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for
Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A

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NO.10 Amy is new to Google AdWords and she's curious about the policies Google requires for
participants and their ads. Which one of the following is NOT of the Google AdWords policy categories.?
A. Link policies
B. Editorial and format policies
C. Image policies
D. Content policies
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their
ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option
would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality
score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you've elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you've elected to target affects how the quality score is
calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content
placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It's calculated using a variety of
factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user's search query.
Answer: D

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NO.13 John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the
Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network.
How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the
Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network - once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are
spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online.
Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest
percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
Answer: D

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NO.15 Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in
managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her.
How can the SEO firm now manage Beth's account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth's account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth's account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth's account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A

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NO.16 Google uses multiple approaches, such as IP addressing, to determine the language and location of
users searching for particular keywords. What term is given to the Google analysis of the search term,
such as Tampa doctors, to determine where a user may be originating their search from?
A. Google AdWords search analysis
B. Qualitative analysis
C. Quantitative analysis
D. Query parsing
Answer: D

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NO.17 Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used
car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred's ad to be displayed?
A. Car that's been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
Answer: D

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NO.18 Frank is managing a Google AdWords ad group for his travel agency. Frank wants to make certain that
his ad appears in Google when someone searches for Montana cabin rentals. Which one ofthe following
matching options would ensure that Frank's ad would appear when this exact phrase exclusively is used?
A. [Montana cabin rentals]
B. "Montana cabin rentals"
C. -Montana cabin rentals
D. Montana cabin rentals
Answer: A

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NO.19 Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to
determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
Answer: D

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NO.20 You have created four different ads for a client. The client is pleased, but wants to know how Google
AdWords selects which sponsored links ad to display. How does Google AdWords chooses the ad to
display?
A. The AdWords system shows each ad once before rotating to the next ad.
B. The manager of the ad must determine the orderand frequency of the ad to be displayed.
C. The AdWords system automatically rotates among the different ad variations and shows the
better-performing variation more.
D. The AdWords system shows each ad for 100 impressions and then rotates to the next ad.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Dreamweaver CS4 ACE Exam)

Exam Code: 9A0-086

Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS4 Exam)

Exam Code: 9A0-036

Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe PhotoShop CS ACE Exam)

Exam Code: 9A0-031

Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop 7.0 Product Proficiency Exam)

Exam Code: 9A0-094

Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop CS4 ACE Exam)

Exam Code: 9A0-084

Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Acrobat 9 Professional ACE Exam)

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NO.1 You want to display an on-screen preview of how your RGB document will look when produced in
CMYK. Which should you choose to specify the device to simulate?
A. View > Proof Setup
B. View > Proof Colors
C. Image > Mode > CMYK Color
D. Image > Mode > Multichannel
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which file format can store the original Camera Raw file and image data from a digital camera?
A. Cineon format
B. OpenEXR format
C. Digital Negative format (DNG)
D. Large Document Format (PSB)
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are working with an HDR image and you want to use a Photoshop filter that does NOT work with
an HDR image. What should you do?
A. Convert the image to 32 Bits/Channel
B. Convert the image to 16 Bits/Channel
C. Convert to LAB color mode at 32 Bits/Channel
D. Convert to Multichannel mode at 16 Bits/Channel
Answer: B

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NO.4 On the Mac OS, which should you choose to group all the workspace elements in a single, integrated
window?
A. View > Show > None
B. Window > Application Frame
C. Window > Workspace > Basic
D. View > Screen Mode > Standard Screen Mode
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to highlight certain menu items in color. What should you do?
A. Choose Preferences > Interface > Show Channels in Color
B. Choose Preferences > Interface > Show Tool Tips
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts and use the Keyboard Shortcuts tab
D. Choose Edit > Menus and use the Menus tab
Answer: D

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NO.6 In the Photoshop Color Settings dialog box you see a warning that says: Your Creative Suite
applications are not synchronized for consistent color. You want consistent color treatment across
Photoshop, Illustrator, Acrobat, and InDesign. What should you do?
A. From the Settings list choose: Monitor Color
B. From the Settings list choose: Custom
C. In Bridge, choose Edit > Creative Suite Color Settings and apply a color setting
D. In Bridge, choose Preferences > Advanced and check the box to Use Software Rendering
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
You've standardized your workflow around Adobe RGB (1998). How do you configure the Color Settings
dialog box so that you're always alerted when an RGB image you open contains a profile that's different
than the RGB working space in the Color Settings dialog box?
A. In the Working Spaces section, make sure Adobe RGB (1998) is selected in the RGB pop-up menu.
B. In the Color Management Policies section, choose Convert to Working RGB from the RGB pop-up
menu.
C. In the Color Management Policies section, select the Ask When Opening check box in the Profile
Mismatches check box.
D. In the Color Management Policies section, select the Ask When Opening check box in the Missing
Profiles check box.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have a 12-megapixel digital camera image and you want to reduce its size for a Web page where
the image is required to be 400 pixels wide (with no height restriction). You want to edit the image further
as a layered Photoshop file, so it must remain in Photoshop format after resizing.
What is the best way to resize the entire image to the requirements above?
A. Choose Image > Canvas Size, and in the New Size section set Width to 400 pixels
B. Choose File > Save for Web & Devices, and set W: to 400 px
C. Choose Image > Image Size, deselect Resample Image, and set Resolution to 72 ppi
D. Choose Image > Image Size, select Resample Image, and set Pixel Dimensions: Width to 400 pixels
Answer: D

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NO.9 You have a document using the Adobe RGB (1998) color space, and you need to convert it to a smaller
CMYK color space represented by a press profile. The document contains no significant colors that are
outside the CMYK color space.
Which rendering intent will most effectively preserve the color relationships within the RGB document
when it's converted to CMYK?
A. Absolute Colorimetric
B. Relative Colormetric
C. Perceptual
D. Saturation
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have finished editing an image acquired from a digital camera. Which command should you
choose to change the current image mode to one that is appropriate for preparing an image to be printed
using process colors?
A. Image > Mode > CMYK
B. Image > Mode > Lab Color
C. Image > Mode > RGB Color
D. Image > Mode > Indexed Color
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which file format supports transparency in a Web browser?
A. GIF
B. PSD
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
Answer: A

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NO.12 You want to add metadata to a JPEG file that will be used on the Web. Where should you enter the
copyright information for that file?
A. File > Scripts > Statistics
B. File > Import > Annotations
C. File > File Info and select the Description tab
D. File > Save for Web & Devices and select from the Metadata list
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are configuring the Color Settings dialog box for images intended for output to the Web. Which
RGB working space should you choose?
A. sRGB
B. ProPhoto RGB
C. Adobe RGB
D. ColorMatch RGB
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two actions will display your image at 100%? (Choose two)
Select all that apply.
A. Choose View > Actual Pixels.
B. Double-click the Zoom tool in the toolbox.
C. Double-click the Hand tool in the toolbox.
D. Press Ctrl-0 (Windows) or Command-0 (Mac OS).
E. With the Zoom tool selected, click the Print Size button in the options bar.
Answer: AB

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NO.15 You have four images open in Photoshop. You currently see each image in its own separate window
with its own title bar. You would like to see just one image and tabs for the other images. Which should
you choose?
A. Window > Arrange > Float in Window
B. Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows
C. Click the 4-up button in the Arrange Documents menu
D. Click the Consolidate All button in the Arrange Documents menu
Answer: D

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NO.16 You choose View > Proof Colors and preview how colors will print on a specific printer. What is a
requirement for Proof Colors to work properly?
A. You have chosen Edit > Assign Profile to assign the profile for the printer's color space
B. You have chosen Edit > Convert to Profile to convert the document into the printer's color space
C. You have also turned on View > Gamut Warning
D. You have configured the Customize Proof Condition dialog box
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-094   9A0-094

NO.17 You are using the Merge to HDR command to combine several images. Which Bit Depth will support
the full range of luminance values of an HDR image?
A. 8 Bit/Channel
B. 16 Bit/Channel
C. 24 Bit/Channel
D. 32 Bit/Channel
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-094   9A0-094 exam

NO.18 You have selected the Zoom tool. What happens when you hold down the H key and click in the
image and hold down the mouse button?
A. Your image zoom changes temporarily
B. You see an animated zoom continuously zooming into an image
C. You see a synchronized zooming in of multiple images that are tiled
D. You zoom into an image while increasing the window size to accommodate the enlarged image
Answer: A

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NO.19 You have a grayscale image that you would like to print. You would like to add a color tint and print the
image on two separate plates. Which should you choose?
A. Image > Mode > Indexed Color
B. Image > Mode > RGB Color
C. Image > Mode > CMYK Color
D. Image > Mode > Duotone
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-094   9A0-094   9A0-094 braindump   9A0-094   9A0-094 braindump

NO.20 You want to prepare an image for the Web that includes reducing the image resolution. Which
resample method is recommended as best for reduction?
A. Bilinear
B. Bicubic Sharper
C. Nearest Neighbor
D. Bicubic Smoother
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 040-444

Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist)

Exam Code: 030-333

Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Exercise Specialist Exam)

Exam Code: 020-222

Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Health/Fitness Instructor Exam)

Exam Code: 010-111

Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Certified Personal Trainer)

030-333 (ACSM Exercise Specialist Exam) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/030-333.html

NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as compared with
warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Answer: D

ACSM   030-333 exam simulations   030-333   030-333

NO.2 .A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75
bpm would be equal to
A. 195bpm.
B. 166bpm.
C. 177bpm.
D. 102bpm.
Answer: C

ACSM   030-333   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.3 .Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client
with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations related to this condition at
home?
A. Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.
B. Note signs and symptoms (e.g.,dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report
them to a physician.
C. Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an
irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .A 62-year-old, obese factory worker complains of pain in his right shoulder on arm abduction; on
evaluation, decreased ROM and strength are noted. You also notice that he is beginning to use
accessory muscles to substitute movements and to compensate. These symptoms may indicate
A. A referred pain from a herniated lumbar disk.
B. Rotator cuff strain or impingement.
C. angina.
D. Advanced stages of multiple sclerosis.
Answer: B

ACSM original questions   030-333 demo   030-333

NO.5 .According to the most recent National Institutes of Health's Clinical Guidelines for the
Identification, Evaluation, and Treatment of Overweight and Obesity in Adults, recommendations
for practical clinical assessment include
A. Determining total body fat through the BMI to assess obesity.
B. Determining the degree of abdominal fat and health risk through waist circumference.
C. Using the waist-to-hip ratio as the only definition of obesity and lean muscle mass.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

ACSM exam dumps   030-333 original questions   030-333

NO.6 .Treatment for claudication during exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Daily exercise sessions.
B. Intensity of activity to maximal tolerable pain, with intermittent rest periods.
C. Cardiorespiratory building activities that are nonweight bearing if the plan is to work on longer
duration and higher intensity to elicit a cardiorespiratory training effect.
D. Stopping activity at the onset ofclaudication discomfort to avoid further vascular damage from
ischemia.
Answer: D

ACSM exam   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.7 .Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.
B. Peripheralvasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.
B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. IncreasedROM.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Which of the following situations indicates progression to independent and unsupervised exercise
for a client after CABG surgery in an outpatient program?
A. The client exhibits mild cardiac symptoms of angina, occurring intermittently during exercise
and sometimes at home while reading.
B. The client has a functional capacity of greater than 8 MET with hemodynamic responses
appropriate to this level of exercise.
C. The client is noncompliant with smoking cessation and weight loss intervention programs.
D. The client is unable to palpate HR, deliver RPEs, or maintain steady workload intensity during
activity.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Special precautions for clients with hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding muscle strengthening exercises that involve low resistance.
B. Avoiding activities that involve theValsalva maneuver.
C. Monitoring a client who is taking diuretics for arrhythmias.
D. Avoiding exercise if resting systolic BP is greater than 200 mm Hg or diastolic BP is greater
than 115 mm Hg.
Answer: A

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NO.11 .Initial training sessions for a person with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease most likely
would NOT include
A. Continuous cycling activity at 70% of Vo2 max for 30 minutes.
B. Use ofdyspnea scales, RPE scales, and pursed-lip breathing instruction.
C. Intermittent bouts of activity on a variety of modalities (exercise followed by short rest).
D. Encouraging the client to achievean intensity either at or above the anaerobic threshold.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333 original questions   030-333

NO.12 .The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy individuals
should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333   030-333 braindump   030-333 test answers

NO.13 .Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limitingchronicdisease.
B. Clients withcomorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.
D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
Answer: C

ACSM   030-333   030-333 test answers   030-333 braindump

NO.14 .A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus checks her fasting morning glucose level on her whole-blood
glucose meter (fingerstick method), and the result of 253 mgldL (14 mmol/L). A urine test is
positive for ketones before her exercise session. What action should you take?
A. Allow her to exercise as long as her glucose is not greater than 300mgldL (17 mmol/L).
B. Not allow her to exercise this session, and notify her physician of the findings.
C. Give her an extra carbohydrate snack, and wait 5 minutes before beginning exercise.
D. Readjust her insulin regimen for the remainder of the day to compensate for the high morning
glucose level.
Answer: B

ACSM certification   030-333   030-333 braindump

NO.15 .Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333   030-333 original questions   030-333

NO.16 .In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler's stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
Answer: D

ACSM original questions   030-333 answers real questions   030-333   030-333

NO.17 .All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333   030-333   030-333 exam dumps

NO.18 .Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.
B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Answer: C

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NO.19 .A client taking a calcium-channel blocker most likely will exhibit which of the following responses
during exercise?
A. Hypertensive response.
B. Increased ischemia.
C. Improvedanginal thresholds.
D. Severe hypotension.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What common medication taken by clients with end-stage renal disease requires careful
management for those undergoing hemodialysis?
A. Antihypertensive medication.
B. Lithium.
C. Cholestyramine.
D. Cromolyn sodium.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333   030-333 braindump   030-333 questions   030-333   030-333

NO.21 .Symptoms of claudication include
A. Cramping, burning, and tightness in the calf muscle, usually triggered by activity and relieved
with rest.
B. Acute, sharp pain in the foot on palpation at rest.
C. Crepitus in the knee during cycling.
D. Pitting ankle edema at a rating of 3 +
Answer: A

ACSM exam dumps   030-333   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.22 .All of the following are special considerations inprescribing exercise for the client with arthritis
EXCEPT
A. The possible need to splint painful jointsforprotection.
B. Periods of acute inflammation result in decreased pain and joint stiffness.
C. The possibility of gait abnormalities as compensation for pain or stiffness.
D. The need to avoid exercise of warm,swollenjoints.
Answer: B

ACSM braindump   030-333 braindump   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.23 .A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.
B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the samesubmaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of BP.
Answer: A

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NO.24 .A client with angina exhibits symptoms and a 1mm, down-sloping ST- segment depression at a
HR of 129 bpm on his exercise test. His peak exercise target HR should be set at
A. 128bpm.
B. 109 to 119bpm.
C. 129bpm.
D. 125 to 128bpm.
Answer: B

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NO.25 .During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiacafterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333   030-333

NO.26 .Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may bechronotropically (HR) competent with exercise but require
longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the initial exercise portion of their session.
B. Persons who arechronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not exercise at
low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and need not
be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycleergometer because of the
location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333 original questions   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.27 .The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on -blocking medication would generally
be
A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 - age) X 0.85.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333 exam   030-333 certification training   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.28 .Controlling pool water temperature (83-88¡ãF), avoiding jarring and weigh- bearing activities, and
avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special considerations for exercise in
A. Clients afteratherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
Answer: D

ACSM original questions   030-333   030-333   030-333 test   030-333

NO.29 .Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment activity for inpatient rehabilitation of a
client on the second day after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Limit activities as tolerated to the development of self-care activities, ROM for extremities, and
low-resistance activities.
B. Limit upper body activities to biceps curls, horizontal arm adduction, and overhead press using
5-pound weights while sitting on the side of the bed.
C. Progress all activities performed from supine to sitting to standing.
D. Measure vital signs, symptoms, RPE, fatigue, and skin color and perform electrocardiography
before, during, and after treatments to assess activity tolerance.
Answer: B

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NO.30 .Which of the following is an appropriate exercise for clients with diabetes and loss of protective
sention in the extremities?
A. Prolonged walking.
B. Jogging.
C. Step-class exercise.
D. Swimming.
Answer: D

ACSM   030-333   030-333 certification training   030-333 exam