2013年8月31日星期六

1Z0-871 exam study guide

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Exam Code: 1Z0-871
Exam Name: MYSQL MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part I 1Z0-871
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 In non-strict mode, assuming that the table city does not already exist and you execute the following
sequence of commands: CREATE TABLE city (city_name CHAR(5)) INSERT INTO city (city_name)
VALUES ('NEW YORK'), ('TOKYO'), (23+345), ('LONDON') -- Ignoring any errors or warnings that may be
issued, which values are now in the table?
A. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '23+345', 'LONDON'
B. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '23+34', 'LONDO'
C. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', ' ', 'LONDON'
D. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDO'
E. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDON'
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want to create two databases, test and Test. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You can create both databases because database names in MySQL are case sensitive.
B. You can create both databases when your operating system supports case sensitive directory names.
C. You can create both databases when you quote delimited the database names like `test` and `Test`.
D. You can create both databases since t and T are different in the ASCII character set.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are a valid identifier for the user table in the mysql database.?
A. mysql.user
B. `mysql.user`
C. `mysql`.`user`
D. mysql.`user`
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements will return a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'pro'?
A. LIST DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
B. SHOW DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
C. SELECT DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
D. LIST DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
E. SHOW DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
F. SELECT DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true? Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
A. Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
B. Database have a default character set and a default collation.
C. When creating a table within a database without specifying a character set and a collation, the default
character set and collation from the database are being used.
D. If a default character set and collation are defined for a database, settings for tables defined in that
database will be ignored.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Ignoring any warnings that may be issued, which of the following statements will delete the `world`
database and its entire contents on execution, but return no error if it doesn't exist?
A. DROP DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
B. DROP IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
C. DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
D. DELETE DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
E. DELETE IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
F. DELETE DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following are true in relation to character set and collation relationships in MySQL?
A. A collation may belong to only one character set.
B. A collation may belong to many character sets.
C. A character set may have only one collation.
D. A character set may have many collations.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Consider the following:
Which of the quoted values below will be returned for the name field in the SELECT results?
A. ' Tom'
B. ' Tom '
C. 'Tom'
D. 'Tom '
Answer: B

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NO.9 Is the following statement true or false? "Each database corresponds to a single directory under data
directory, regardless of what storage engine table uses in the database"
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements will provide a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'world'?
A. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
B. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
C. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DATABASE WHERE NAME
LIKE 'world%'
D. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.DATABASE WHERE
NAME LIKE 'world%'
Answer: A

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NO.1 Makr the valid asynchronous update bunding technique.
A.UPDATE
B.CALL FUNCTION.. .. IN UPDATE SK
C.PERFORM ASYNCHRONOUS
D.PERFORM.. .. ON COMMIT
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following types of enhancements do not need to be assigned to an enhancement project?
(More than one answer is correct)
A.Keyword
B.Field exit
C.Menu exit
D.Screen
E.Program exit
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 Which transaction is used to make dictionary adjustments when upgrading versions of SAP?
A.SPAU
B.SP01
C.SPDD
D.CMOD
Answer: C

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NO.4 Mark the valid usage of Read stement(More than one answer is correct)
A.DO. Read Line SY-INDEX. ENDDO
B.Read Line 3 of Current Page
C.Read Line 3 of Next Page
D.Read Current Line of table IB
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 You have issued a Set Title bar in the PBO of your screen, Hon long Will the title remain active?
A.Until the Next screen change
B.Until the next Set TitleBar stement
C.Until the next DB Luw
Answer: B

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NO.6 What does the DESCRIBE TABLE stement provide to the program?
A.Access Type
B.Key Definition
C.Key Uniqueness
D.Key length
Answer: A

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NO.7 If you do not SUPPRESS DIALOG in a dynpro before you LEAVE TO LIST-PROCESSING, the following
Mill happen (More than one answer is correct)
A.The screen will be displayed with the report that was built, but the gui-stus will be the one fromo the
previous screen
B.The report will be displayed on the screen only after the user presses the enter key
C.The previous screen (calling screen) will be redisplayed
D.The screen will be displayed, and will be empty
Answer: B, D

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NO.8 In what case are bstrips good candidates?(More than one answer is correct)
A.When Users need the ability to navigate freely between components
B.When Navigation between components is predetermined in a fixed manner
C.When several components of an application need to be displayed on one screen
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 What is true about the following code?
A.The Module Validate is processed if both FLIGHT and CARRID are other than the initial value
B.The Module Validate is processed if at least one of the fields FLIGHT or CARRID are other than the
initial value
C.The Module Validate is processed only if both FLIGHT and CARRID are initial values
D.The Module Validate is never processed
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is true about a logical dabase program?
A.Any Node that is accessed requires the Node to be defined in the NODES stement
B.The Put Stement in the LDB provides da for the Get Event in the report program
C.Get Event in the report program requests da from the Put Stement
D.You can access hierarchically higher tables in your program even though there is no table stement for
the table
Answer: B

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NO.11 In PBO, what field conins the tol number of lines in table control tc_flight
A.TC_FLIGHT_LINES
B.SY-DYNNR
C.SY-STEPL
D.TC_FLIGHT-TOL_LINES
Answer: A

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NO.12 What message type does not implicitly trigger dabase commits for the table updates specified in your
program?
A.I type MESSAGE stement
B.A type MESSAGE stement
C.E type MESSAGE stement
D.W type MESSAGE stement
E.S type MESSAGE stement
Answer: B

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NO.13 If you are building a bstrip to be handled at the presention level. What function type should be
assigned to the b title?
A.P
B.T
C.Blank
D.F
E.E
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 Identify the situation Where Append Structures are not allowed.
(More than one answer is correct)
A.If the last field has a domain of da type curr
B.If the last field is already an Append Structure
C.If the table conins a field of da type LCHR or LRAW
D.If the table is a pooled or cluster table
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 What is conined in the system variatable sy-Linsz?
A.Row count of the current line
B.Height of the current line
C.Width of the current line
D.Size of vertical bars in your list
Answer: C

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NO.16 If the program has SRT-OF-SELECTION event and you program stement between the REPORT
stement and the first event keyword or form stement, the stement are than included with which processing
block
A.SRT-OF-SELECTION
B.END-OF-SELECTION
C.Initialization
D.No Processing Block
Answer: A

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NO.17 Where does information come from when you press F1 on a screen field?
A.Da element documention
B.Domain short text
C.Search help
D.Domain Help values
Answer: A

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NO.18 Mark the three system fields that are continuously mainined by the list
(More than one answer is correct)
A.SY-LINSZ
B.SY-TITLE
C.SY-LINNO
D.SY-COLNO
E.SY-PAGNO
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.19 On what line does the output AAAA
appear in the following code?
A.9
B.2
C.1
D.10
Answer: B

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NO.20 What controls the dialogue behavior of a search help?(More than one answer is correct)
A.Admin da
B.DPOS
C.SPOS
D.LPOS
E.Value Range
Answer: C, D

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NO.21 Mark the Program Attribute that is used to define a Dialogue Program?
A.R
B.D
C.1
D.M
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following methods require higher Maintenance when new releases of SAP are installed?
A.Enhancements to the SAP Sndard
B.Append Structures
C.Customizing
D.Modifications to the SAP Sndard
Answer: D

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NO.23 Your screen has a table control defined to it. In the PAI, what does the SY-LOOPC system variatable
conin?
A.Number of table control lines
B.Loop Counter
C.Number of filled lines
Answer: C

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NO.24 What object is not supported by the Modification assisnt?
A.User exits
B.Text Elements
C.Functions
D.Menus
Answer: A

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NO.25 A screen field has been dynamically changed in a dialog program. When does it get re-initialized?
A.At the end of the transaction
B.Only when the program encounters more code to modify the field attributes
C.At PAI execution
D.At PBO execution
Answer: D

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NO.26 What is needed to ensure a check field is verified against the referred key field of the check table?
A.same da type only is required for check field and referenced field
B.all key fields MUST have domain equality between check table and foreign key table
C.same domain is required for check field and referenced field
D.same da element is required for check field and referenced field
Answer: C

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NO.27 How does a customer benefit by using SSCR?
A.To log enhancements made by a development user
B.To log Customizing made by a development user
C.To log modifications made by a development user
Answer: C

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NO.28 What is true about calling a screen (More than one answer is correct)
A.A screen can be called from within a function module
B.Screens should be called from PBO modules
C.Screens can be called from PAI modules
D.A screen can be called from a report program
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.29 What type of memory is typically used as default values for screen fields?
A.SAP memory
B.ABAP/4 memory
C.Shared Memory
Answer: A

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NO.30 Identify the different type categories in the ABAP dictionary (More than one answer is correct)
A.table Types
B.Da Models
C.Structures
D.Da definitions
E.Da Elements
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.1 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.4 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.7 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.9 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.12 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.14 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.18 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.1 The transfer from the under-construction phase to completed asset is referred to here as ______.
A. capitalization of the asset under construction
Answer: A

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NO.2 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements is false (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. The account type field in terms of payment basic data screen should be defined separately, to prevent
any done change in the term of payment.
B. Terms of payments are copied from invoice to credit memos when they are linked to.
C. Inserting a "V" in the invoice reference field during document entry means the terms of payment are
activated in the non-invoice-related credit memos.
D. The day limits define the dates of the cash discount periods.
E. The system cannot define the splitment of an installment payment, at least you define it in the terms of
payment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The ______ specifies the master data level at which each field can be maintained.
A. Maintenance level
Answer: A

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NO.4 The number of the G/L account to be charged can be automatically suggested by the system provided
that automatic account determination has been defined for company code.
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.5 [FI-Master Data] Field Status group control:
A. The GL account group.
B. The fields for data entry screens.
C. The number ranger.
D. The account type.
Answer: B

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NO.6 It is not possible to use two check series for making payment
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.7 The ______ determines the depreciation start date of the asset. This date is determined for each
depreciation are by the period control method of the depreciation key.
A. asset value date
Answer: A

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NO.8 If a closed year is subsequently released for posting, it can only be closed again once the year-end
closing program has been re-run.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the fields that can be used as selection criteria in reporting from the below given options.
A. Evaluation groups: These are asset master data fields for which the user can specify use and meaning.
B. Reason for investment: In this master record field, you can enter a reason for the investment.
C. Environmental protection indicator. Here you can enter a measure taken to comply with environmental
protection laws.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.10 Tax calculation by system are usually posted via separate line item to a special tax account in standard
scenario
A. true
B. falsh
Answer: A

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NO.11 The area menus can be displayed but not changed in area menu maintenance
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.12 What do the posting keys specify? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are
correct)?
A. Whether the accounts are allowed for posting.
B. Whether the line items are valid for a business transaction.
C. Whether the line items contain "credit" or "debit" values.
D. Whether the line item is connected to a payment transaction or not.
E. Whether the posting is sales-relevant and the sales figure of the account is to be updated by the
transaction, for example, by the posting of a customer invoice.
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.13 What are the depreciation terms that are mainly used as additional parameters in the cost-accounting
depreciation area?
A. scrap value
B. index
C. variable depreciation portion
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.14 The master data section of ASSET CLASS consists with control data and default values for the
administrative data in the asset master record
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.15 Company codes from different countries cannot tie processed in same payment run
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.16 SAP provides model charts of depreciation for many countries but we can also define our own chart of
depreciation (by copying and changing)
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a SAP Business Object (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. It is all the transaction data generated via transactions.
B. It is the instanced class of the Class Builder.
C. It is composed of tables that are related in a business context, including the related application
programs and it is maintained in the Class Repository.
D. It is the representation of a central business object in the real world, such as an employee, sales order,
purchase requisition, invoice and so on.
E. It is a sequence of dialog steps that are consistent in a business context and that belong together
logically.
Answer: D

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NO.18 For which scenario can you use the cash journal?
A. To post incoming and outgoing payments in any transaction currency.
B. To make remittances to vendors.
C. To record documents that will not be included in the general ledger.
D. To manage cash in local branches and offices.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Several company codes can use the same chart of accounts, although they have different charts of
depreciation
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.20 What does the monitor provide? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are
correct)
A. The access to messages and result lists.
B. The visualization of both entire technical and business information.
C. The opportunity to postpone someone's tasks.
D. The opportunity to view the work of colleagues and the processing sequence, as well as the technical
and business status of every task.
E. The ability to monitor the total progress of period-end closing when the user uses more than one task
list.
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.21 Identify the features of a Business Blueprint from the following list: (There are more than one correct
answer for this question)
A. Business process groups
B. Blueprint document
C. Associated items
D. Business groups
E. Business scenarios
F. Blueprint structure
Answer: A, B, C, E, F

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NO.22 What are the elements that are available to enter rules for the prerequisites (validation & substitution)
and check (validation):
A. Logical Operator (boolean terms)
B. Comparison operators
C. Operands
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.23 It is possible for the planned depreciation to be displayed through through assigning depreciation
terms and a planned start-up date to the order or project.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.24 Consider the following sentences about field status:
1. Fields which ______ can be made ______.
2) Fields that can be entered, but are not required, can be set to ______ entry.
Which of the options below matches the blank spaces of those sentences?
A. must not have an entry/optional for 1; suppressed for 2)
B. must have an entry/suppressed for 1; suppressed for 2)
C. must have an entry/optional for 1; optional for 2)
D. must have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
E. must not have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
Answer: D

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NO.25 By the period control method of the depreciation key, the asset value date is determined for each
depreciation area.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.26 According the Replacement Values: Index (one or more options may be true)
A. An indexed revaluation can also be calculated for accumulated depreciation and imputed interest.
B. Only year-dependent index classes are used.
C. The index series must be assigned to an index class.
D. You enter the index series in the asset or in the asset class.
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.27 A document can only be reversed if: One or more is correct.
A. The original document contains no cleared line items, if the document does contain cleared items, then
these items must be reset before reversal can take place.
B. The original document contains only customer, vendor and G/L line items.
C. The original document was posted in FI system or originating in other modules.
D. All specified values (such as, cost center) are not still valid.
Answer: A, B

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NO.28 Asset history sheet is the most important and most comprehensive year end report or intermediate
report
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.29 Preparation for year-end closing: (one or more options are true)
A. If you change any depreciation values, you must run depreciation posting again.
B. Once depreciation has been posted in FI-AA and FI, a balance sheet and profit and loss statement can
be created.
C. If an area posts APC values to the general ledger periodically, you will need to run report RAPERPOO
for periodic posting.
D. After the depreciation lists and asset history sheet have been checked, depreciation is posted.
E. If the final result is not satisfactory, you can carry out depreciation simulation or (bulk) changes, or
make adjustment postings.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

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NO.30 What is the purpose of the terms of payment? (Please choose the correct sentence)
A. Define the baseline date.
B. Enable the cross-company code transactions.
C. Calculate a cash discount and invoice due date.
D. Calculate only the required conditions for SD invoices.
E. Calculate the tax amounts.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C_TADM51_70
Exam Name: SAP SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 (C_TADM51_70) C_TADM51_70
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is correct regarding transport domains and transport groups in
ABAP-based SAP Systems? (Choose two.)
A. All SAP Systems within one transport group have a common transport directory.
B. A transport domain consists of the client-independent table TDOM (the transport domain table), into
which all transports (exports or imports) in the SAP System are logged.
C. All SAP Systems in a transport domain must belong to the same transport group.
D. A transport domain can only be set up if more than one application server is installed.
E. All SAP Systems within one transport domain have RFC destinations (names beginning with "TMS...")
pointing to the same transport domain controller system.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? (Choose two.)
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 In SAP NetWeaver 7.0, several components need the ABAP and the JAVA stack. The customer has
decided to install both stacks in one database. A default schema user is created for each stack. In which
Oracle database table are these users physically stored and how are they named? The SAP is LNX and
the instance number is 03. (Choose two.)
A. TablE.dba_users; JAVA schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>DB
B. TablE.dba_user; Java user: ORALNXDB
C. TablE.users; ABAP and JAVA Schema owner: SAPLNX
D. TablE.dba_users; ABAP schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>
E. TablE.dba_user; ABAP schema owner: ORALNX
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which tools in the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 ABAP and Java Stack are responsible for the registration
process in the System Landscape Directory (SLD)? (Choose two.)
A. The whole mechanism to register an ABAP based SAP system is event triggered. Once a change in
the configuration happens, a background job informs the SLD.
B. The transaction RZ21 allows the configuration of the SLD connection.
C. SAP systems based on AS Java can register to the SLD using the SLD Data Supplier Service in Visual
Administrator.
D. The main ABAP transaction to inform the SLD is RZ70. The SAP gateway is involved.
E. SAP systems based on AS Java cannot register to the SLD.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which data sources are supported by the User Management Engine (UME) of AS Java? (Choose
three.)
A. A UDDI provider
B. The database of the AS Java
C. A client of an AS ABAP based SAP system
D. A directory server (LDAP)
E. A file (also called secure store)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system? (Choose two.)
A. Screens (Dynpros)
B. Buffer areas
C. Programs
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 You are using the profile maintenance (transaction code RZ10) to configure profiles and profile
parameters of an AS ABAP+Java based SAP system. Which profiles of the system you can maintain in
RZ10?
A. You can maintain the default profile as well as the start and instance profiles of the ABAP+Java
application servers. However, you cannot maintain the start and instance profiles of the Java central
services instance.
B. Only the default profile and the start profiles can be maintained, because the instance profiles contain
AS Java relevant parameters which cannot be maintained by the ABAP programs used in transaction
RZ10.
C. All profiles (start profiles, instance profiles, default profile) of the system can be maintained.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Regarding the object, TemSe, of the SAP spool system, which of the following statements are correct.?
(Choose two.)
A. TemSe stores, for example, spool data.
B. TemSe always stores the spool requests in the database.
C. The instance parameter "rspo/store_location" determines where TemSe data is stored.
D. TemSe is always an operating system file.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 The Integrated Log Viewer is presented as a service of SAP NetWeaver AS Java. It provides runtime
control for working with log messages.
Which of the following statements about the Integrated Log Viewer is true?
A. The Integrated Log Viewer can merge logs within an SAP NetWeaver AS Java instance.
B. The Integrated Log Viewer provides options for log and trace configuration. You can add new locations
and categories and change the configuration of the existing ones.
C. Log Viewer is the right tool for setting and modifying Severity levels.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_SRM_70
Exam Name: SAP SUPPLIER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT WITH SAP SRM 7.0 C_SRM_70
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is used in MDM Import Manager to determine whether records are new or already exist in the
repository?
A. Value Conversion
B. Default Import Action
C. Record Filtering
D. Matching Field(s)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where is the setting that enables a purchaser to enter a bid on behalf of a supplier?
A. Business Partner
B. Implementation Guide (IMG)
C. Vendor Group
D. Organization Plan
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the account
assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which follow-on documents can be the result of an SRM confirmation of goods in the classic scenario.?
A. Acknowledgement and inbound delivery
B. Material document and accounting document
C. Inbound delivery and material documents
D. Accounting document and inbound delivery
Answer: B

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NO.5 You can transfer lookup data from ERP and SRM to SRM-MDM. What data can only be transferred
from ERP to SRM-MDM?
A. Product categories
B. UOM ISO codes
C. Purchasing organizations
D. Currencies
Answer: C

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NO.6 Accounting data is supplied according to the SAP SRM system configuration.
For which shopping carts is this data ignored?
A. For shopping carts which are subject to a purchaser completion workflow
B. For shopping carts in the extended classic scenario
C. For shopping carts referring to procurement cards
D. For shopping carts for direct material
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which documents are created for an invoice entered for a local purchase order in the standalone
scenario?
A. Accounting document in SRM
B. Invoice in ERP
C. Invoice in SRM
D. Accounting document in ERP
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which mode in the MDM Data Manager allows you to assign attributes to categories in a hierarchy?
A. Taxonomy mode
B. Record mode
C. Matching mode
D. Hierarchy mode
Answer: A

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NO.9 What can be used to give a supplier an advantage in a live auction?
A. Cascading line items
B. Lotting
C. Reference price
D. Factored-cost bidding
Answer: D

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NO.10 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which item data can be defined prior to the start of a live auction? (Choose two)
A. Reserve price
B. Binding period
C. Automatic extension
D. Reference price
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which SAP MDM component is used to schedule automated data imports?
A. MDM Import Manager
B. MDM Server
C. MDM Import Server
D. MDM Connector
Answer: C

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NO.13 What control setting is maintained in the transaction type of an RFx?
A. Allow automatic extension
B. Allow surrogate bidding
C. Allow multiple currencies
D. Allow bidders to add new items
Answer: D

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NO.14 For which kind of auctions do you use proxy bidding?
A. For auctions without lots
B. For auctions without overall best bid validation
C. For auctions with bid decrements at the auction header
D. For auctions without reserve price
Answer: A

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NO.15 What can be used in MDM Data Manager to calculate the percentage of a price change for catalog
items?
A. Assignments
B. Validations
C. Matching rules
D. Transformations
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C-TFIN52-64
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NO.1 If a closed year is subsequently released for posting, it can only be closed again once
the year-end
closing program has been re-run.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.2 The ______ specifies the master data level at which each field can be maintained.
A. Maintenance level
Answer: A

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NO.3 [FI-Master Data] Field Status group control:
A. The GL account group.
B. The fields for data entry screens.
C. The number ranger.
D. The account type.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A document can only be reversed if: One or more is correct.
A. The original document contains no cleared line items, if the document does contain
cleared items, then
these items must be reset before reversal can take place.
B. The original document contains only customer, vendor and G/L line items.
C. The original document was posted in FI system or originating in other modules.
D. All specified values (such as, cost center) are not still valid.
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 What do the posting keys specify? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think
they are
correct)?
A. Whether the accounts are allowed for posting.
B. Whether the line items are valid for a business transaction.
C. Whether the line items contain "credit" or "debit" values.
D. Whether the line item is connected to a payment transaction or not.
E. Whether the posting is sales-relevant and the sales figure of the account is to be updated
by the
transaction, for example, by the posting of a customer invoice.
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.6 What are the depreciation terms that are mainly used as additional parameters in the
cost-accounting
depreciation area?
A. scrap value
B. index
C. variable depreciation portion
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.7 Identify the features of a Business Blueprint from the following list: (There are more
than one correct
answer for this question)
A. Business process groups
B. Blueprint document
C. Associated items
D. Business groups
E. Business scenarios
F. Blueprint structure
Answer: A, B, C, E, F

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NO.8 The transfer from the under-construction phase to completed asset is referred to here
as ______.
A. capitalization of the asset under construction
Answer: A

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NO.9 The ______ determines the depreciation start date of the asset. This date is determined
for each
depreciation are by the period control method of the depreciation key.
A. asset value date
Answer: A

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NO.10 Asset history sheet is the most important and most comprehensive year end report or
intermediate
report
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the terms of payment? (Please choose the correct sentence)
A. Define the baseline date.
B. Enable the cross-company code transactions.
C. Calculate a cash discount and invoice due date.
D. Calculate only the required conditions for SD invoices.
E. Calculate the tax amounts.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are the fields that can be used as selection criteria in reporting from the below
given options.
A. Evaluation groups: These are asset master data fields for which the user can specify use
and meaning.
B. Reason for investment: In this master record field, you can enter a reason for the
investment.
C. Environmental protection indicator. Here you can enter a measure taken to comply with
environmental
protection laws.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.13 The area menus can be displayed but not changed in area menu maintenance
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.14 It is possible for the planned depreciation to be displayed through through assigning
depreciation
terms and a planned start-up date to the order or project.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.15 According the Replacement Values: Index (one or more options may be true)
A. An indexed revaluation can also be calculated for accumulated depreciation and imputed
interest.
B. Only year-dependent index classes are used.
C. The index series must be assigned to an index class.
D. You enter the index series in the asset or in the asset class.
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.16 It is not possible to use two check series for making payment
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.17 Consider the following sentences about field status:
1. Fields which ______ can be made ______.
2) Fields that can be entered, but are not required, can be set to ______ entry.
Which of the options below matches the blank spaces of those sentences?
A. must not have an entry/optional for 1; suppressed for 2)
B. must have an entry/suppressed for 1; suppressed for 2)
C. must have an entry/optional for 1; optional for 2)
D. must have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
E. must not have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is a SAP Business Object (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. It is all the transaction data generated via transactions.
B. It is the instanced class of the Class Builder.
C. It is composed of tables that are related in a business context, including the related
application
programs and it is maintained in the Class Repository.
D. It is the representation of a central business object in the real world, such as an employee,
sales order,
purchase requisition, invoice and so on.
E. It is a sequence of dialog steps that are consistent in a business context and that belong
together
logically.
Answer: D

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NO.19 SAP provides model charts of depreciation for many countries but we can also define
our own chart of
depreciation (by copying and changing)
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.20 The master data section of ASSET CLASS consists with control data and default
values for the
administrative data in the asset master record
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.21 The number of the G/L account to be charged can be automatically suggested by the
system provided
that automatic account determination has been defined for company code.
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.22 Several company codes can use the same chart of accounts, although they have
different charts of
depreciation
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.23 Company codes from different countries cannot tie processed in same payment run
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.24 What are the elements that are available to enter rules for the prerequisites (validation
& substitution)
and check (validation):
A. Logical Operator (boolean terms)
B. Comparison operators
C. Operands
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.25 For which scenario can you use the cash journal?
A. To post incoming and outgoing payments in any transaction currency.
B. To make remittances to vendors.
C. To record documents that will not be included in the general ledger.
D. To manage cash in local branches and offices.
Answer: D

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NO.26 By the period control method of the depreciation key, the asset value date is
determined for each
depreciation area.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.27 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements is false (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. The account type field in terms of payment basic data screen should be defined
separately, to prevent
any done change in the term of payment.
B. Terms of payments are copied from invoice to credit memos when they are linked to.
C. Inserting a "V" in the invoice reference field during document entry means the terms of
payment are
activated in the non-invoice-related credit memos.
D. The day limits define the dates of the cash discount periods.
E. The system cannot define the splitment of an installment payment, at least you define it in
the terms of
payment.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Tax calculation by system are usually posted via separate line item to a special tax
account in standard
scenario
A. true
B. falsh
Answer: A

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NO.29 What does the monitor provide? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think
they are
correct)
A. The access to messages and result lists.
B. The visualization of both entire technical and business information.
C. The opportunity to postpone someone's tasks.
D. The opportunity to view the work of colleagues and the processing sequence, as well as
the technical
and business status of every task.
E. The ability to monitor the total progress of period-end closing when the user uses more
than one task
list.
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.30 Preparation for year-end closing: (one or more options are true)
A. If you change any depreciation values, you must run depreciation posting again.
B. Once depreciation has been posted in FI-AA and FI, a balance sheet and profit and loss
statement can
be created.
C. If an area posts APC values to the general ledger periodically, you will need to run report
RAPERPOO
for periodic posting.
D. After the depreciation lists and asset history sheet have been checked, depreciation is
posted.
E. If the final result is not satisfactory, you can carry out depreciation simulation or (bulk)
changes, or
make adjustment postings.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

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