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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 633 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.4 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

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NO.8 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.11 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.13 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.14 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

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NO.15 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.17 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

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NO.19 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

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NO.20 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.21 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

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NO.22 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.25 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.27 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.28 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.1 The end of the project comes after which of the following?
A. Project charter
B. F'na' deliverable
C. Schedule
D. QA activities are done
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B

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NO.3 In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: B

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NO.4 ______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
Answer: D

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NO.5 Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
Answer: B

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NO.6 In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage
B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Answer: A

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NO.7 Most change requests are a result of _______.
A. Value added change (enhancements)
B. Schedule constraints
C. Regulatory constraints
D. Improvement to the project scope
Answer: A

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NO.8 The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the
following best describes product description?
A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the
project customer
B. The product description defines the contracted work
C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered
another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project
team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.
A. Alternative identification
B. "'s

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NO.1 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

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NO.2 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

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NO.3 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

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NO.4 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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NO.5 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which PHP function relieves a 1st of HTTP headers that have been sent as part of the HTTP response
or are ready to be sent?
A. header()
B. headers()
C. header_list()
D. header_sent()
E. getresponseheaders0
Answer: C

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NO.2 Consider the following two files. When you run test.php, what would the output look like?
A. 12, 12
B. 12, 24
C. 24, 12
D. 24, 24
E. PHP Fetal error. Cannot redeclare strlen()
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the ideal method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy(destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Answer: C

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Which DOMElement property provides a reference to the list of Element's children?
Answer: childNodes

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NO.5 What is the return value of the following code?
strpos("me myself and I", "m", 2)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 0
E. 1
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which requirements need NOT be met so that file uploads work?
A. The PHP directive file_uploads must be set to on
B. The form's method attribute must be set to "post"
C. Sate mode must be turned off so that the uploaded file an be written to the server
D. The form's enctype attribute must be set to "multipart/form-data"
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about PHP is true? (Choose 3)
A. A final class can be derived.
B. A final class may be instantiated.
C. A class with a final function may be derived.
D. Static functions can be final.
E. Properties can be final.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 Assuming UTF-8 encoding, what is the value of $count?
A. false
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can the line on which HTTP headers were sent inside a script be determined?
A. Using the headers_sent() function.
B. Using the output_start() function.
C. Using the ob_start() function.
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A

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NO.10 The following form is loaded in a recent browser and submitted, with the second list element selected:
<form method="post">
<select name="list">
<option>one</option>
<option>two</option>
<option>three</option>
</select>
</form>
In the server-side PHP code to deal with the form data, what is the value of $_POST ['list']?
A. 1
B. 2
C. two
D. null (since the <code> value attribute of the list has not been set)
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is used to find all PHP files under a certain directory?
A. PHPIterator
B. RecursiveTreelterator
C. RecursiveDirectorylterator
D. SplTempFileObject
Answer: C

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NO.12 CORRECT TEXT
Which PHP function sets a cookie whose value does not get URL encoded when sending it to the
browser?
Answer: setrawcookie()

NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 1

NO.14 You want to extract the pieces of a date string, which looks like this: "2005-11-02". Which of the
following pieces of code will property assign $year, $month and $day with their respective values?
A. sscanf("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
B. scan("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
C. sscanf('%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02", $year, $month, $day);
D. sscan($year, $month, $date '%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02");
Answer: A

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NO.15 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 2

NO.16 When setting HTTP headers from PHP, how can you make sure that your application sends the same
header twice, with different values?
A. Set the second argument of the header() function to false
B. PHP does that automatically
C. One kind of header may only be sent once
D. Use the header_add() function
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. An integer overflow error
C. A warning, because $x1 is not set
D. A warning, because $x2 is not set
E. A floating-point overflow error
F. Nothing
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following rules must every correct XML document adhere to? (Choose 2)
A. It has to be well-formed.
B. It has to be valid.
C. It has to be associated to a DTD.
D. It may only contain UTF-8 encoded characters.
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 What will be the result of the following operation?
array_combine(array("A","B","C"), array(1,2,3));
A. array("A","B",C",1,2,3)
B. array(1,2,3,"A","B",C")
C. array("A"=>1,"B"=>2,"C"=>3)
D. array(1=>"A",2=>"B",3=>"C")
E. array(1,2,3)
Answer: C

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NO.20 CORRECT TEXT
What is the name of the key in $_FILES['name'] that contains the number of bytes of the uploaded file?
Answer: size

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NO.21 An HTML form contains this form element
<input type="file" name="myFile" />
When this form is submitted, the following PHP code gets executed:
move_uploaded_file(
$_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'],
'uploads/' . $_FILES['myFile']['name']);
Which of the following actions must be taken before this code may go into production?
(Choose 2)
A. Check with is_uploaded_file() whether the uploaded file $_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'] is valid
B. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value is not consistent among web
browsers
C. Check the charset encoding of the HTTP request to see whether it matches the encoding of the
uploaded file
D. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value could be forged
E. Use $HTTP_POST_FILES instead of $_FILES to maintain upwards compatibility
Answer: B,D

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NO.22 An HTML form has two buttons. After submitting the form, how could you determine with PHP which
button was clicked?
A. An HTML form may only have one button.
B. Hook up JavaScript the form to add a value to the URL depending on which button has been clicked.
C. Put the two buttons in individual form elements with different action attribute.
D. Assign name and value attributes to each button and use $_GET or $_POST to find out which button
has been clicked.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following code snippets writes the content of the °sou r ce .t x¡± t ¡ °t arg e t . xt
A. file_put_contents("target.txt", fopen("source.txt", "r"));
B. file_put_contents("target.txt", readfile("source.txt"));
C. file_put_contents("target.txt", join(file("source.txt"), ""));
D. file_put_contents("target.txt", file_get_contents("source.txt"));
E. $handle = fopen("target.txt", "w+"); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents("source.txt")); fclose($handle);
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.24 What tags can always be used to begin a PHP script? (Choose 2)
A. <?php
B. <?
C. <%
D. <%php
E. <script language="php">
Answer: A,E

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NO.25 Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D

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NO.27 An object can be counted with count() and sizeof() if it ­ ..
A. implements ArrayAccess
B. has a public__count() method
C. was cast to an object from an array
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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- It must implement the count() method (no underscores)

NO.28 A/hen comparing prepared statements and regular, application-constructed SQL statements, which of
the following is true?
A. Prepared statements are faster
B. Prepared statements are always shorter
C. Prepared statements are more secure
D. Prepared statements are easier to develop
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.29 What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Answer: D

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NO.30 You'd like to use the class MyDBConnection that's defined in the
MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace, but you want to minimize *as much as
possible* the length of the class name you have to type. What would you do?
A. Import the MyGreatFramework namespace
B. Import the MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace
C. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer\MyDBConnection to a shorter name
D. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer to a shorter name
Answer: B

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This removes the need to prefix the class with the namespace name. You can refer to the class simply as
®M y DBC onnec ti o ¡¯

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NO.1 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table
from Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to
call a script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.2 A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry
-Allow user to override during data entry
-Require not empty
-Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding resizing layout parts and objects in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If no Autosizing anchors are set for any object in a layout part, the layout part will expand to fill
the window as it is resized, but all objects will maintain a constant distance from the center of the
layout part.
B. A body part with the top and bottom Autosizing anchors checked in the Inspector will expand or
contract its height in List View as the window is resized instead of changing the number of rows
displayed.
C. If a field in a tab panel has all four of its Autosizing anchors checked in the Inspector, and the
tab control has none, then the field can expand maximally to the edges of the tab panel as the
window is resized.
D. To set the layout part styles to expand or contract horizontally with window resizing, the gray
line defining the right edge of the layout can be selected enabling the Autosizing anchors to be set
in the Inspector.
E. If multiple fields in a portal and the portal itself all have their left and right Autosizing anchors
checked in the Inspector, then the fields will expand proportionally within the portal as the window
is resized horizontally.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which extended privilege is required to connect to a hosted database from a FileMaker Go 12
client?
A. fmphp
B. fmapp
C. fmxml
D. fmios
E. fmiwp
F. fmxdbc
G. fmreauthenticate (n)
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the minimal requirement to add an external FileMaker Data Source table occurrence
of
Inventory from a file called DEPT to the Relationships Graph of a file called PROD?
A. an active account associated with the [Full Access] privilege set in both PROD and DEPT
B. an active account associated with a privilege set that has the Manage External Data Sources
option checked in both PROD and DEPT
C. an active account associated with any privilege set in PROD, and an active account associated
with a privilege set that has view record access for the Inventory table
D. an active account in DEPT associated with a privilege set that has the Manage External Data
Sources option checked, and an active account with the [Full Access] privilege set in PROD
E. an active account associated with the [Full Access] privilege set in PROD and an active account
in DEPT associated with a privilege set that has view record access for the Inventory table
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about scripts in a hosted FileMaker Pro 12 file? (Choose two.)
A. Two users may not edit the same script simultaneously using the Manage Scripts dialog.
B. Scripts in the hosted file can only be scheduled for server-side execution if Run script with full
access privileges has been enabled.
C. If a script opens and edits a record, and does not commit the record, scripts run by other users
will be unable to edit data in that record until the record is committed.
D. A script can use Get (RecordAccess) before continuing execution to determine whether or not
the current record in the hosted file has been locked by another user.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about overriding the default behavior of the Quick Find box
available in the Status Toolbar? (Choose two.)
A. The Perform Quick Find custom menu item must be installed.
B. The Show/Hide Quick Find script step will allow the user to hide the Ouick Find box.
C. The Get (QuickFindText) function will return the text entered into the Quick Find box.
D. The OnModeExit script trigger can be used to override a find request issued from the Ouick
Find box.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes
automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: VCP-410
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
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NO.1 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.2 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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NO.5 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.6 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.10 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.11 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.12 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

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NO.15 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.17 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: VCP511
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 (Private Beta))
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NO.1 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.13 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.15 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.17 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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