2013年11月30日星期六

Zend-Technologies 200-530 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 200-530
Exam Name: Zend-Technologies (Zend PHP 5.3 Certification)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 254 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 1

NO.2 A/hen comparing prepared statements and regular, application-constructed SQL statements, which of
the following is true?
A. Prepared statements are faster
B. Prepared statements are always shorter
C. Prepared statements are more secure
D. Prepared statements are easier to develop
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D

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NO.4 What tags can always be used to begin a PHP script? (Choose 2)
A. <?php
B. <?
C. <%
D. <%php
E. <script language="php">
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Consider the following two files. When you run test.php, what would the output look like?
A. 12, 12
B. 12, 24
C. 24, 12
D. 24, 24
E. PHP Fetal error. Cannot redeclare strlen()
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the ideal method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy(destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the return value of the following code?
strpos("me myself and I", "m", 2)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 0
E. 1
Answer: B

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NO.8 An object can be counted with count() and sizeof() if it ­ ..
A. implements ArrayAccess
B. has a public__count() method
C. was cast to an object from an array
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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- It must implement the count() method (no underscores)

NO.9 What is the output of the following code?
A. 0
B. An integer overflow error
C. A warning, because $x1 is not set
D. A warning, because $x2 is not set
E. A floating-point overflow error
F. Nothing
Answer: D

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NO.10 CORRECT TEXT
What is the name of the key in $_FILES['name'] that contains the number of bytes of the uploaded file?
Answer: size

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NO.11 When setting HTTP headers from PHP, how can you make sure that your application sends the same
header twice, with different values?
A. Set the second argument of the header() function to false
B. PHP does that automatically
C. One kind of header may only be sent once
D. Use the header_add() function
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 2

NO.14 You'd like to use the class MyDBConnection that's defined in the
MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace, but you want to minimize *as much as
possible* the length of the class name you have to type. What would you do?
A. Import the MyGreatFramework namespace
B. Import the MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace
C. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer\MyDBConnection to a shorter name
D. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer to a shorter name
Answer: B

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This removes the need to prefix the class with the namespace name. You can refer to the class simply as
®M y DBC onnec ti o ¡¯

NO.15 CORRECT TEXT
Which DOMElement property provides a reference to the list of Element's children?
Answer: childNodes

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NO.16 Which PHP function relieves a 1st of HTTP headers that have been sent as part of the HTTP response
or are ready to be sent?
A. header()
B. headers()
C. header_list()
D. header_sent()
E. getresponseheaders0
Answer: C

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NO.17 Assuming UTF-8 encoding, what is the value of $count?
A. false
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which requirements need NOT be met so that file uploads work?
A. The PHP directive file_uploads must be set to on
B. The form's method attribute must be set to "post"
C. Sate mode must be turned off so that the uploaded file an be written to the server
D. The form's enctype attribute must be set to "multipart/form-data"
Answer: C

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NO.19 What will be the result of the following operation?
array_combine(array("A","B","C"), array(1,2,3));
A. array("A","B",C",1,2,3)
B. array(1,2,3,"A","B",C")
C. array("A"=>1,"B"=>2,"C"=>3)
D. array(1=>"A",2=>"B",3=>"C")
E. array(1,2,3)
Answer: C

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NO.20 An HTML form contains this form element
<input type="file" name="myFile" />
When this form is submitted, the following PHP code gets executed:
move_uploaded_file(
$_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'],
'uploads/' . $_FILES['myFile']['name']);
Which of the following actions must be taken before this code may go into production?
(Choose 2)
A. Check with is_uploaded_file() whether the uploaded file $_FILES['myFile']['tmp_name'] is valid
B. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value is not consistent among web
browsers
C. Check the charset encoding of the HTTP request to see whether it matches the encoding of the
uploaded file
D. Sanitize the file name in $_FILES['myFile']['name'] because this value could be forged
E. Use $HTTP_POST_FILES instead of $_FILES to maintain upwards compatibility
Answer: B,D

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NO.21 You want to extract the pieces of a date string, which looks like this: "2005-11-02". Which of the
following pieces of code will property assign $year, $month and $day with their respective values?
A. sscanf("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
B. scan("2005-11-02", '%d-%d-%d', $year, $month, $day);
C. sscanf('%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02", $year, $month, $day);
D. sscan($year, $month, $date '%d-%d-%d', "2005-11-02");
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following statements about PHP is true? (Choose 3)
A. A final class can be derived.
B. A final class may be instantiated.
C. A class with a final function may be derived.
D. Static functions can be final.
E. Properties can be final.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.23 The following form is loaded in a recent browser and submitted, with the second list element selected:
<form method="post">
<select name="list">
<option>one</option>
<option>two</option>
<option>three</option>
</select>
</form>
In the server-side PHP code to deal with the form data, what is the value of $_POST ['list']?
A. 1
B. 2
C. two
D. null (since the <code> value attribute of the list has not been set)
Answer: C

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NO.24 What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Answer: D

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NO.25 An HTML form has two buttons. After submitting the form, how could you determine with PHP which
button was clicked?
A. An HTML form may only have one button.
B. Hook up JavaScript the form to add a value to the URL depending on which button has been clicked.
C. Put the two buttons in individual form elements with different action attribute.
D. Assign name and value attributes to each button and use $_GET or $_POST to find out which button
has been clicked.
Answer: D

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NO.26 How can the line on which HTTP headers were sent inside a script be determined?
A. Using the headers_sent() function.
B. Using the output_start() function.
C. Using the ob_start() function.
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A

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NO.27 CORRECT TEXT
Which PHP function sets a cookie whose value does not get URL encoded when sending it to the
browser?
Answer: setrawcookie()

NO.28 Which of the following code snippets writes the content of the °sou r ce .t x¡± t ¡ °t arg e t . xt
A. file_put_contents("target.txt", fopen("source.txt", "r"));
B. file_put_contents("target.txt", readfile("source.txt"));
C. file_put_contents("target.txt", join(file("source.txt"), ""));
D. file_put_contents("target.txt", file_get_contents("source.txt"));
E. $handle = fopen("target.txt", "w+"); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents("source.txt")); fclose($handle);
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.29 Which of the following rules must every correct XML document adhere to? (Choose 2)
A. It has to be well-formed.
B. It has to be valid.
C. It has to be associated to a DTD.
D. It may only contain UTF-8 encoded characters.
Answer: A,B

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NO.30 Which of the following is used to find all PHP files under a certain directory?
A. PHPIterator
B. RecursiveTreelterator
C. RecursiveDirectorylterator
D. SplTempFileObject
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 149 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Mary has learned about the different ways authentication can be implemented on a web site.
Which of the following forms of authentication would consist of the most basic form
and also the less secure?
A. Digest Authentication
B. Basic Authentication
C. LDAP Authentication
D. Token Base Authentication
Answer: A

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NO.2 What technology is often used by employees to get access to web sites that are blocked by
their corporate proxy server?Choose the best Answer:.
A. DNS spoofing
B. ARP poisoning
C. Anonymizers
D. BASIC web authentication
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following password and encyption cracking methods is guaranteed to
successfully crack any password or encryption algorithm?
A. Dictionary
B. Hybrid
C. Brute Force
D. RainbowCrack
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that
are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
A. CANVAS
B. CORE IMPACT
C. METASPLOIT
D. DEEP HOLE
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following SQL script will cause the SQL server to cease operations?
A. NET STOP SQLSERVER -
B. OR 1=1; CLOSE WITHNOWAIT;
C. NET STOP SQLSERVERAGENT -
D. SHUTDOWN WITH NOWAIT;-
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are reasons why fragment-based port scans are often used by
attackers?Choose two.
A. Simple non-stateful packet filtering devices can sometimes be bypassed
B. Reassembling fragmented packets is not time or processor intensive
C. RFC 1121 requires that all routers pass fragmented packets
D. Firewalls may be configured for high throughput and thus dont reassemble and inspect
fragmented packets
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 One of the last steps taken by an attacker will be to configure permanent access to a
compromised system.
However, the installation of a backdoor, installation of new processes,and changes to key
files could be very quickly detected by an administrator.
What tool would assist the attacker in preventing the administrator from detecting
changes to files,new processes that are running,or other signs that the system might have
been compromised?
A. A Trojan horse
B. A Rootkit
C. A Backdoor
D. A privilege escalation tool
Answer: B

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NO.8 When talking about databases search query languages,commands such as
Select,Update,Insert,Grant,and Revoke would all the part of what language?
A. C++
B. SQL
C. Python
D. Perl
Answer: B

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NO.9 This document is a high level document that describes management intentions towards
security.What is the name of the document?
A. Procedures
B. Guidelines
C. Policies
D. Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.10 Yannick who is a very smart security tester has mentioned to one of his friends that he
has found a way of appending data to an existing file using the built in Windows tools
and no third party utility.
This text appended does not affect the functionality,size,or display within traditional file
browsing utilities such as dir or Internet Explorer.What is Yannick making reference to in
this case?
A. Steganography
B. Hybrid Encryption
C. Alternate Data Streams
D. Append.exe
Answer: C

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NO.1 Select which answers are correct with respect to the relationship between "x", as expressed in the
DTD element type declaration below, and its child element. Assume child elements "a" "b" "c" are all
empty elements, expressed as like <a/>.
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT x (a, (b|c)*)>
A. <x>
<a/>
<b/>
<c/>
</x>
B. <x>
<a/>
</x>
C. <x>
<a/>
<c/>
<c/>
<b/>
</x>
D. <x>
<b/>
<c/>
<a/>
</x>
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the -->(1) "product"
element in the "XML Document" below belongs.
[XML Documents]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<products xmlns:A="urn:sample:A"
xmlns:B="urn:sample:B">
<A:product>
<B:product>
<product/> -->(1)
</B:product>
</A:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:A
B. urn:sample:B
C. urn:sample:A and urn:sample:B
D. None
Answer: D

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NO.3 Choose the statement about a problem with DTDs that is incorrect.
A. The way statements are made in a DTD differs from how the same statements are made in XML. As
a result, different algorithms must be made available for the XML processor to interpret XML documents,
which is inefficient.
B. Any single DTD can only be used to validate a single XML document.
C. In a DTD, it is not possible to specify any explicit numerical data type.
D. DTDs fail to comply with the rules of namespaces.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Select which of the following correctly describes (1) and (2) in the XML Schema document below when
the content of the "Flag" element must be an integer of 0 or 1.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Flag" type="flagData"/>
<xs:simpleType name="flagData">
<xs:restriction base="xs:integer">
<(1) value="0"/>
<(2) value="1"/>
</xs:restriction>
</xs:simpleType>
</xs:schema>
A. (1) xs:minInclusive (2) xs:maxInclusive
B. (1) xs:enumeration (2) xs:enumeration
C. (1) xs:minOccurs (2) xs:maxOccurs
D. (1) xs:minExclusive (2) xs:maxExclusive
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Select which of the following is correct with respect to the attribute list declaration for setting
"notebook" as the default value in the CDATA "type" attribute included in the "computer" element.
A. <!ATTLIST type CDATA "notebook">
B. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA notebook>
C. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA "notebook">
D. <!ATTLIST computer type="notebook" CDATA>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Select which of the following correctly describes the DTD attribute list declaration when the "date"
attribute and the "reception" attribute are included in the "Customer_Visit" element.
A. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date,reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
B. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date|reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
C. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date && reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date CDATA #IMPLIED reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
Answer: D

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NO.7 Select which of the following is the default character encoding for an XML document in which the XML
declaration does not designate an encoding attribute.
A. UNICODE
B. Shift_JIS
C. UTF-8 or UTF-16
D. EUC-JP
Answer: C

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NO.8 Select which of the following correctly describes an element type declaration that includes either the
"home" element or the "mobile" element as a child element of the "telephone_number" element.
A. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home,mobile)>
B. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home?mobile)>
C. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home)>
<!ELEMENT telephone_number (mobile)>
D. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home|mobile)>
Answer: D

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NO.9 Select which of the following is an absolute requirement for a well-formed XML document.
A. an XML declaration
B. a Schema definition
C. a DOCTYPE declaration
D. an element
Answer: D

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NO.10 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Document". Select which of the following correctly describes the
results of applying "XSLT Stylesheet" to "XML Document". Assume that the input XML document and
transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.
[XML Documents]
<product_list>
<LIST>Product_List</LIST>
<product name="pen">
<name lang="ja">Pen</name>
</product>
<product name="paper">
<name lang="ja">Paper</name>
</product>
</product_list>
[XSLT Stylesheet]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0">
<xsl:template match="/">
<LIST>
<xsl:for-each select="/product_list/product">
<xsl:value-of select="name"/>
</xsl:for-each>
</LIST>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST element does
not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>PenPaper</LIST>
C. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
</LIST>
D. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
PenPaper
</LIST>
Answer: B

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NO.11 Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD
element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
<!ELEMENT computer (notebook|server)*>
<!ELEMENT notebook (mouse*)>
<!ELEMENT mouse (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT server (#PCDATA)>
A. Both the "notebook" element and the "server" element can be written as a child element of the
computer element.
B. As a child element of the "computer" element, the "server" element can be written before the
"notebook" element.
C. When writing the "notebook" element, "mouse" must be written as a child element.
D. Only one "mouse" element can be written as a child element of the "notebook" element.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Select which of the following correctly
describes a valid XML document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="ContactInformation" type="ContactType" />
<xs:complexType name="ContactType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name="Name" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
<xs:element name="eMail" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
</xs:sequence>
<xs:attribute name="Date" type="xs:date" use="optional" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
A. <ContactInformation Date="2004-07-31">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
B. <ContactInformation>
<Name/>
<eMail/>
</ContactInformation>
C. <ContactInformation Date="July 31, 2004">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
D. <ContactInformation/>
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Which of the following is a valid XML
document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Output_file" type="outputType" />
<xs:complexType name="outputType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="20" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file" type="fileType" />
<xs:complexType name="fileType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file_Name" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file_Name" type="xs:string" />
</xs:schema>
A. < xml version="1.0"?>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
B. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
C. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
D. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
<file>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 Choose the statement about HTML or XML that is incorrect.
A. In HTML, the types and meanings of tags are predefined.
B. In XML, a tag can be given any name as long as the name obeys XML naming conventions and is
well-formed.
C. In XML, elements can be given any number of attributes as long as the attributes obey XML naming
conventions and are well-formed.
D. XML protocols are linguistic standards used to control views on a Web browser.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Select which of the following correctly describes a namespace to which the "price" element in the XML
document below belongs.
<message xmlns="urn:sample:order"
xmlns:product="urn:sample:product">
<product:list xmlns="urn:sample:list">
<name>XML study guide</name>
<price>536</price>
</product:list>
<order>
<customerID>J058974</customerID>
<number>1</number>
</order>
</message>
A. urn:sample:order
B. urn:sample:product
C. urn:sample:list
D. Does not belong to any namespace.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Select which DTD element type declaration correctly defines the "XML Documents" structure below.
[XML Documents]
<Documents>
<Product_Name>black pen</Product_Name>
+
<Product_Name> red pencil </Product_Name>
=
<Price>100</Price>
yen.
</Documents>
A. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price|#PCDATA)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name*|Price)>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Documents (#PCDATA|Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
Answer: D

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NO.17 Select which of the following correctly describes a document type declaration when designating an
external DTD file.
A. <!ENTITY productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
B. <!DOCTYPE productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
C. <!DOCTYPE root [
<!ELEMENT productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
]>
D. <!DTD productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
Answer: B

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NO.18 Select which of the following is coded using XML syntax:
A. XHTML documents
B. SOAP headers
C. XSLT Stylesheets
D. DOM
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
[XML Documents]
<!DOCTYPE ElementA [
<!ELEMENT ElementA EMPTY>
<!ATTLIST ElementA Attribute (ABC|DEF|GHI) #IMPLIED>
]>
<ElementA Attribute ="
A
B
C"/>
A. This is not a well-formed document, because the attribute value cannot have a line feed in it.
B. This is not a valid XML document, because an attribute cannot be designated for an element that is
designated as EMPTY.
C. This is not a valid XML document, because the attribute value is not a value listed in the attribute list
declaration.
D. This is a valid XML document.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Select which of the following correctly describes an XML Schema definition when the MarketPrice
element must be a positive integer. Assume the Schema namespace prefix is "xs".
A. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:negativeInteger"/>
B. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:positiveInteger"/>
C. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:duration"/>
D. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:hexBinary"/>
Answer: B

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NO.1 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and sees a red arrow beside the Transfer
Server. The administrator verifies that the Transfer Server can be pinged by the DNS name. The arrow
beside the Transfer Server in the Dashboard remains red.
What does the red arrow indicate in this situation?
A. The Transfer Server service is down.
B. The Transfer Server web service is down.
C. The Transfer Server is powered off.
D. The Transfer Server repository is offline.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In the View Administrator Dashboard, what does a gray question mark beside Other Components -
Domains indicate?
A. The domain is Active Directory 2008-based.
B. The domain is LDAP-based.
C. The domain is Active Directory 2000-based.
D. The domain is Kerberos-based.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user reports being unable to log in to his remote desktop. The administrator needs to identify the root
cause of this issue.
Which two fields in View Administrator will assist with identifying the state of the desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Remote Session > Session State
B. Help Desk > Session State
C. Desktops > Status
D. Problem Desktops > Status
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which three error states are reported by View Administrator in the Problem Desktops tab? (Choose
three.)
A. persistent disk offline
B. replica not responding
C. stuck in provisioning
D. report ready, but not accepting connections
E. powered on but not responding
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 In a Dedicated pool, a desktop shows a status of Configuration Error.
What does this indicate?
A. The display protocol is not enabled.
B. The display protocol is enabled.
C. The pool is not enabled.
D. The pool is enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that a desktop is Checked
Out.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is locked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
B. The desktop is unlocked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
C. The desktop is locked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
D. The desktop is unlocked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator needs to update a single desktop in a pool and prohibit the user from logging in to the
desktop while updating it.
After going to the Inventory page of the pool and selecting the desktop, what must the administrator do to
ensure the user is unable to log in to the desktop?
A. choose Enter Maintenance Mode
B. choose Send Message
C. choose Disconnect Session
D. choose Logoff Session
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Provisioning.
What does this status most likely indicate?
A. The desktop is being customized by Sysprep.
B. The desktop is being customized by Quickprep.
C. The desktop is being created by the vCenter Server.
D. The desktop is being validated by the Security Server.
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that under Problem Desktops,
there is one desktop identified as Agent Unreachable.
What does this desktop status indicate?
A. The desktop server service is disabled.
B. The desktop messenger service is unable to send messages to the Agent.
C. The desktop firewall service is blocking ports needed by the Agent.
D. The desktop network service is disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can an administrator inform a pool user that a recompose will take place?
A. click on Users and Groups > select pool > click Send Message
B. click on Pools > select their pool > click Sessions tab > highlight user > click Send Message
C. click on Pools > highlight their pool > click More Commands > choose Send Message
D. click on Global Settings > click Edit > check Display warning before recompose > enter a message
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator goes to View Administrator on the Connection Server CS1 and looks through the
Events to see if there are any errors. The administrator sees the following error:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Desktop1: Customization error due to no network communication
between the View agent and the Connection Server.
According to the View Administrator Guide, what are two recommended troubleshooting steps that can be
taken to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet CS1 4001
B. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet Desktop1 4001
C. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup Desktop1
D. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup CS1
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what does the number next to the red exclamation mark indicate?
There are three problem events recorded.
A. There are three problems.
B. There are three potential problems.
C. There are three warning events recorded.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
A user is experiencing difficulties connecting to her desktop.
Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the user being unable to log in?
The desktop is suspended.
A. The administrator is already logged in.
B. The user is already logged in.
C. The desktop is off.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What does the yellow double arrow indicate when monitoring within the Dashboard > System Health >
View components pane?
A. agent issue
B. low performance
C. alert
D. warning
Answer: D

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NO.15 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Startup.
Which two conditions does this status indicate? (Choose two.)
A. The display protocol has started.
B. The View Agent has started.
C. The View Agent is still starting.
D. The display protocol is still starting.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 View Administrator shows a desktop pool with 100 remote and 20 local sessions displayed.
What does this indicate.?
A. The pool has 20 sessions available for local users.
B. The pool has 120 users with sessions.
C. The pool has 120 sessions available for users.
D. The pool has 100 active sessions and 20 sessions available for users.
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator accesses the View Administrator Console Dashboard and sees a Desktop with the
error:
Customization operation timed out
What is the most likely cause of the error?
A. The datastore containing the virtual machine has been formatted for NTFS.
B. The datastore containing the virtual machine has the block size set too high.
C. The datastore containing the virtual machine has an NFS mount.
D. The datastore containing the virtual machine has run out of space.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which third-party tool can be used to store event data after it has been cycled off of the Dashboard?
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Crystal Reports
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. MySQL
Answer: C

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NO.19 In a new floating linked-clone pool, a desktop shows a status of Provisioned.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is powered off and has been created, but needs to be customized.
B. The desktop is powered on and has been created, but needs to be customized.
C. The desktop is powered off and has been created and customized.
D. The desktop is powered on and has been created and customized.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A View administrator wants to programmatically determine Desktop entitlements for a user in a script.
What is the correct syntax to query user data with vdmadmin?
A. vdmadmin -U domainuser
B. vdmadmin -U -u domainuser
C. vdmadmin -U: domainuser
D. vdmadmin -User domainuser
Answer: B

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NO.1 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a
performance benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 An administrator selects the Profile Compliance tab of a vSphere cluster, then selects Check
Compliance Now. Which features requirements are not checked by this?
A. vMotion
B. Fault Tolerance
C. DRS
D. Host Profiles
Answer: D

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10. An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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11. An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine
and finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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12. Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides
linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf (page 1, last
paragraph)
13. An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x
deployment using Update Manager Baselines.
Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update?
(Choose three.)
A. Operating system patches
B. Virtual Appliance updates
C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades
D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed
E. Application patches within the virtual machine
Answer: A,D,E

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14. An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver.
It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity,
performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs - Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can
guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter
Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage
Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the
system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans
several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents.
You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores.
You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same
level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already
has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one
userdefined capability at a time.
15. An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk.
Management has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on
demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of
the virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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16. Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externa
lId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID38F
95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
17. An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible
de-duplication store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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18. Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion
Compatibility (EVC) is used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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19. What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots? (Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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20. An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options
are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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21. An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update.
After confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault Tolerance on the virtual machine
and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose
two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk"
extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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22. An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://www.virtualizationadmin.com/articles-tutorials/vmware-esx-and-vspherearticles/vmotion-dr
s-high-availability/enhanced-vmotion-compatibility-primer.html (8th para)
23. Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using
Storage vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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24. An administrator is using Update Manager 5.x to update virtual appliances in a vSphere
environment. The environment is using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA).
What would cause the remediation to fail?
A. Updating of the appliance can only be done if the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) has
been put into Maintenance Mode.
B. Remediation must be configured on the Appliance Administration page before use.
C. Remediation of the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) with Update Manager is not
supported.
D. Remediation requires the hosts to be connected to vCenter using an IPv4 address.
Answer: C

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25. ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from
this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine's that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to
them, swapping and page sharing does not occur.
You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance.
If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the
amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has.
By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory
without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on.
The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB
reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file.
The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.

NO.4 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic
information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.
Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)
A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.
Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export
Diagnostic Data. Select a location and click OK.
C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.
D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.
Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An ESXi 5.x host displays a warning icon in the vSphere console and its summary page lists a
configuration issue "SSH for the host has been enabled." What are two ways to clear this warning?
(Choose two.)
A. Using the Security Profile pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
B. Using the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
C. Using the Advanced Settings pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
D. Using the Networking pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify
reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to
the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.

NO.8 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual
machine. The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host
containing the virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 Which three categories of information should be found in a domain information model? (Choose
three.)
A.concepts
B.detailed attributes
C.attribute datatypes
D.identifiers
E.relationship multiplicity
Answer:ADE

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NO.2 Which two statements reflect the realities about using common data models? (Choose two.)
A.A common data model provides a single representation of each concept that is used everywhere.
B.The goal of common data models is to minimize the number of representations of each concept.
C.The use of comprehensive data structures that combine many concepts simplifies interface design.
D.Enterprises typically require more than one representation for each concept.
Answer:BD

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NO.3 You are deploying a Web Service that is bound to a JMS transport on multiple TIBCO ActiveMatrix
nodes.
What can you do to achieve service scalability?
A.reference a JMS topic in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
B.reference a JMS queue in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
C.configure a routed messaging topology with a multi-hop zone
D.configure queue-to-queue bridging without specifying a selector
Answer:C

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NO.4 What is the root element of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus design?
A.SCA component
B.SCA composite
C.mediation flow
D.Spring implementation type
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which three aspects of design must be defined by the architect using a Total Architecture approach?
(Choose three.)
A.system components
B.security policies
C.communication paths and communication mechanisms
D.interaction with human participants
E.use of Common Data Model schemas in service interfaces
Answer:ACD

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NO.6 When wrapping a backend system, what does a Web Service always provide that the native system
interface does not?
A.standardized service operation semantics
B.an HTTP-based interface
C.a common data model
D.access independent of implementation technology
Answer:D

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NO.7 What is an important practical benefit of service discovery?
A.It allows programs to dynamically discover new features as needed.
B.It allows internal development groups to find functionality that can be reused.
C.It allows services to discover potential consumers using the UDDI protocol.
D.It allows governance groups to discover functionality that could become a service.
Answer:B

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NO.8 When a single instance of a service provider is no longer capable of handling the volume of activity due
to the business process complexity required to handle each request, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A.XML compression reduces the load on the service providers.
B.Scalability can be improved using technology such as HTTP load balancers.
C.The feature should be re-architected as it is not a good candidate for Web Services.
D.Using a JMS-based transport can help improve scalability.
Answer:BD

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NO.9 Which two interaction patterns are supported in TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus? (Choose two.)
A.Synchronous In-Out with SOAP/JMS
B.Asynchronous In-Out with SOAP/HTTP
C.Synchronous Out-In with XML over JMS
D.Asynchronous Out-Only with XML over JMS
Answer:AD

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NO.10 Which two statements are true with respect to the granularity of a service? (Choose two.)
A.Fine-grained services are likely to be usable in many places, so you can ignore their access overhead.
B.Fine-grained service benefits may be outweighed by their access overhead.
C.Coarse-grained services are likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality
D.Coarse-grained services are less likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality.
Answer:BD

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NO.11 Which three characteristics define a Service Component Architecture component type? (Choose
three.)
A.the implementation technology of the component
B.the services that are provided by the component
C.the properties of the component
D.the binding types of the component
E.the references that are made by the component
Answer:BCE

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NO.12 Which two composition styles can be used to define a composite application? (Choose two.)
A.orchestration
B.integration
C.choreography
D.collaboration
Answer:AC

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about namespaces in the XSD standard? (Choose two.)
A.Namespaces are intended as descriptive information for human users.
B.Changes to namespaces are commonly used to identify major version changes in an XSD.
C.An XML file can be validated with two XSDs, which differ by namespace but have the same element
definitions.
D.Two XSD files, which differ by namespace but with the same elements definitions, define different
schemas.
Answer:BD

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NO.14 Which three statements are true about a WSDL instance? (Choose three.)
A.It describes the location of a service, but not the individual operations.
B.It does not require concrete communications endpoints
C.A message may contain more than one part, such as a purchase order and an invoice.
D.An action supported by a service is known as its binding.
E.A port type (interface) is an abstract set of operations.
Answer:BCE

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NO.15 A TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus-based order fulfillment application makes outbound requests to an
inventory service. Based on the geography and quantity of the order, the request must be routed to one of
a number of different specialized inventory service instances.
What are two possible ways to route the requests in ActiveMatrix? (Choose two.)
A.configure the order fulfillment application to reference the different inventory service instances
B.use XPath to create conditional references from the order fulfillment composite to each inventory
service instance
C.create a Mediation Flow containing route tasks and route cases
D.create a dynamic binding to the inventory service and use XPath to compute the routing
Answer:CD

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NO.16 Requirements call for a standards-compliant messaging solution.
Which TIBCO product best meets this requirement?
A.TIBCO BusinessEvents
B.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus
C.TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
D.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid
E.TIBCO Enterprise Messaging Server
Answer:A

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NO.17 In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?
A. PKCS12
B. PKCS7
C. KeyStore
D. PEM
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are three things that can be managed via runtime policies? (Choose three.)
A.service granularity
B.request logging
C.service ownership
D.design versioning
E.access control
F.usage auditing
Answer:BEF

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NO.19 What are two essential elements of a reference architecture? (Choose two.)
A.a concrete deployment model
B.an abstracted architecture pattern
C.a common data model
D.an abstracted process model
Answer:BD

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about processes defined with the Business Process Execution
Language for Web Services (WS-BPEL)? (Choose two.)
A.Process faults in WS-BPEL always return SOAP faults.
B.WS-BPEL processes are always initiated by Web Service calls.
C.Data mappings in a WS-BPEL process require an external service invocation.
D.All functionality used by a WS-BPEL process must be provided in the form of Web Services.
Answer:BD

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