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Exam Code: CAT-221
Exam Name: CA Clarity PPM v13.x Professional Certification Exam
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Exam Code: CAT-060
Exam Name: CA Spectrum Infrastructure Manager r9
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Exam Code: CAT-120
Exam Name: CA Application Performance Management Administrator Exam
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NO.1 Which statement about CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domains is TRUE?
A. A domain cannot contain applications.
B. A domain can contain multiple applications.
C. A domain can only contain a single application.
D. An application managed by CA CEM is known as a domain.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When creating a Dashboard for a series of metrics that are all based on percentile values, what is the
MOST appropriate Data option for these values.?
A. Choose the Auto Expand option on the Scale tab.
B. Choose Show Minimum and Maximum Values on the Miscellaneous tab.
C. Choose the Pin At option on the Scale tab and set the Minimum and Maximum values at 0 and
100.
D. Place a check in the Enable Filter box on the Sort/Filter tab and Filter by the Metrics with topmost
values of 100.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When creating a report, where do you specify the metrics on which the report is based?
A. Text tab
B. Data Properties tab
C. Display Properties tab
D. Default Data Properties tab
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which transaction recording methods are available in CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)?
(Choose three)
A. Agent
B. Script
C. Manual
D. Automatic
E. Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM)
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: CAT-241
Exam Name: CA Clarity PPM v13.x Business Analyst
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Exam Code: CAT-080
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Exam Code: CAT-020
Exam Name: CA eHealth r6 Professional
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NO.1 You are setting up financial data in CA Clarity PPM. Which step is only needed if you are
implementing chargeback functionality?
A. Define classifications.
B. Create inputtype codes.
C. Create a cost/rate matrix.
D. Define General Ledger (GL) codes.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You can monitor a releases performance on the Release Dashboard page. Which portlets are
found on the Release Dashboard page? (Choose three)
A. Scorecard
B. Related Releases
C. Related Release Plans
D. Requirements ByTheme
E. Requirements By Priority
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you
set the status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the
project.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which task can you perform using the Proxy tab on the Account Settings page?
A. Enable substitute processes.
B. Configure an Open Workbench connection.
C. Configure advanced settings for notifications.
D. Enable other users to respond to your action items.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have developed a new process and transported it to a production environment using XML
Open Gateway (XOG). To make the process operational, which step do you need to perform?
A. Change Mode to Active.
B. Validate the process only.
C. Run the Execute a Process job.
D. Validate and activate the process.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CAT-280
Exam Name: CA AppLogic r3 Administrator Exam
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Exam Code: 270-131
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Exam Code: CAT-100
Exam Name: CA Application Performance Management Professional Exam
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NO.1 The WS_API enables you to perform useful functions, such as:
A. Migrating users from CA AppLogic versions before r3.0.
B. Implementing a WebX4 Linux cluster as an assembly of appliances.
C. Integrating CA AppLogic with CA Access Control to protect your web applications.
D. Invoking commands through the RESTful application programming interface (API).
Answer: D

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NO.2 When you configure authentication for the Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC):
A. Make sure that all users access the BFC using the BFC shell only.
B. Make sure that the bfcaadmin user has read-only access to the database replica directory.
C. Do not change the default root
password, because this is required for a correct configuration.
D. Add any necessary public SSH keys for users that will access the BFC to the /root/.ssh
/authorized_keys
file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Before removing a server from the grid or replacing a hard disk, to retrieve any virtual volume
streams off the server, which command should you run?
A. vol clean
B. vol scoop
C. vol migrate
D. vol reinstate
Answer: C

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NO.4 CA AppLogic is able to:
A. Automatically recover from VN failures with zero downtime.
B. Manage all applications, servers, and storage with an iPad application.
C. Handle server or network hardware failures automatically without data loss.
D. Manage external systems, such as Storage Area Networks (SANs), networks, and grids to redirect
failed applications elsewhere.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which step should you perform when you provision the WS_API?
A. Edit the input_template.cfg file.
B. To configure the application, start it immediately after you provision it.
C. Run the vol manage ws_api_instance:data command and edit the vdcs.conf file.
D. When prompted for a password for Secure Shell (SSH) access, enter ws_api_usr.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which guidelines will help you to maximize security for the CA AppLogic platform? (Choose
three)
A. Secure private keys with a passphrase.
B. Ensure that only CA AppLogic users have direct access to commodity enterprise servers.
C. When using a global directory service, do not provide access to the implicit local group all .
D. When using a global directory service, check the strength of the passwords used in the service.
E. Use password authentication only for Secure Shell (SSH) access to the Backbone Fabric Controller
(BFC) server.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 The Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC) should be accessible to all users who will be creating
grids or maintaining the BFC. You should allocate one RFC1918 range to use for backbone addresses.
Which range is valid for this purpose?
A. 12.64.0.0/8
B. 30.128.0.0/32
C. 142.120.0.0/16
D. 192.168.64.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.8 In CA AppLogic, a class definition consists of a class descriptor and one or more class volumes.
What does a class volume contain?
A. A reference to a storage Logical Unit Number (LUN)
B. All the software required to boot and operate an instance of this class
C. A reference to the IP address or host name of the commodity server on which the object is stored
D. The characteristics of the appliance as a component, including its inputs, outputs, configuration
properties, and their default values and hardware resources
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-240
Exam Name: CA Clarity PPM v12 Business Analyst Exam
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Exam Code: CAT-440
Exam Name: CA Performance Management r2.x Professional Exam
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Exam Code: CAT-180
Exam Name: CA Service Desk Manager r12 Professional Exam
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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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NO.2 NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Between the late 60's and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects
and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial
buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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NO.5 The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the
presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection
Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
Answer: A

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NO.7 A "wye" is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.8 In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements
address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of
the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 0B0-106
Exam Name: BEA SOA Foundations Exam
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Last Update: 2014-06-25

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NO.1 How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of interoperability
among supporting technologies and vendor
solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and deployed
for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in a way
that is measurable and manageable and
meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems are
coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into information
technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a roadmap for the
creation and deployment of shared
services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.3 Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled interfaces
between the consumers of functionality and
the applications that represent that functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management that
facilitate the delivery of enterprise
functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications into
interoperable, standards-based services
that can be combined and reused quickly to meet business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software development
methodologies, principally based on Web
Services, which may be incorporated into enterprise software engineering to provide information
technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or
Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise architecture may be
drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best practices-based
approach to constructing a modern
enterprise.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not benefit
from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as
services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality
among them is essentially built into their construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded
in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among them cannot
be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the exposing of
functionality from those systems as
services would be an extremely complex operation.
Answer: ACE

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Exam Code: C4040-121
Exam Name: Virtualization Technical Support for IBM i -v1
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C4040-121 Real Questions Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-06-21

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Exam Code: C2010-570
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Implementation
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NO.1 What comprises a failure code?
A. Failure, affect, fix
B. Issue, reason, resolution
C. Problem, cause, remedy
D. Situation, impact, solution
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the definition of a work package?
A. It groups existing work orders under a new parent work order.
B. It is a preventive maintenance work order hierarchy that has been created from a route.
C. It is a work order linked to all the originating services requests for the work order and is created from
the Related Records tab.
D. It is a group of work orders in Waiting to be Scheduled status that are the responsibility of one person
and is created in the Assignment Manager application.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which method is used to view labor hours, costs, and material costs for a particular work order?
A. from the Work Order Tracking application, select the Cost tab
B. from the Work Order Tracking application, go to the Select Action menu and select View > Costs
C. from the Actuals tab of Work Order Tracking application, download and summarize each of the table
windows for Labor, Materials. Services, and Tools
D. navigate to the Cost Management application, query for the work order in question to view estimated
and actual hours and costs for labor in addition to estimated and actual costs for materials and service
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does an active workflow process define?
A. The flow of work in Application Designer
B. The process to add an attribute to an application
C. The different work to be performed by the lead craft
D. The different paths that a record can take as it moves through a business process
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the purpose of commodity codes?
A. To group like items for issue
B. To group like items for purchasing
C. To group like items for classification
D. To group like items for asset bill of material
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which function is performed in the Quick Reporting application?
A. Create failure code hierarchies
B. Create job plans and safety plans
C. Create preventive maintenance schedules
D. Report actual labor, materials, and tools used in the work
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has an escalation that requires notifications to go to both Marie Smith and her supervisor
Lee Tsumi. How can both users be included as recipients on a communication template?
A. Create a role for both Marie and Lee
B. Create a Person Group with Marie as the primary
C. Add both e-mail addresses on the Recipients tab
D. Include both user e-mails in the Recipient field separated by a colon
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which IBM Maximo Asset Management location status is necessary to associate a location with a
system.?
A. Active
B. Ready
C. Operating
D. Decommissioned
Answer: C

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