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Exam Code: BH0-008
Exam Name: ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT
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Exam Code: BH0-010
Exam Name: BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus
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NO.1 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.6 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-011
Exam Name: BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data
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Exam Code: ITILF2011
Exam Name: The ITIL Foundation - 2011
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NO.1 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.8 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are
these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2060-350
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Transformation Extender V8.4 Application Development
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NO.1 Refer to image shown here:
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the type trees created using the XML
Schema Importer.
A. The trees were created with different schemas.
B. One tree was created using XSDL Hints and Xerces validation.
C. One tree was created using Classic validation and XSDL Hints.
D. One tree was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.D.One tree
was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of syntax items? Syntax items:
A. are limited to 10 bytes.
B. can only be defined as character data.
C. can be defined as character or binary data.
D. are used as separators between portions of data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The structure of the following file has been partially defined in a type tree:
~Smith~Robert~Programmer<NL> ~Doe~John~Manager<NL>
The properties of the types have not been completely defined.
Which of the following options defines the properties for the use of the tilde (~) character in the
sample file?
A. Define ~ as a floating component of the Record type.
B. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the File type.
C. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the Record type.
D. Define ~ character as the initiator and terminator of LastName and FirstName types and initiator
of Title type.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the primary difference between a choice group and a partitioned group?
A. A choice group requires that data must be distinguishable; a partitioned group does not.
B. A partitioned group requires that data must be distinguishable; a choice group does not.
C. A choice group can have both items and groups as components; a partition group can only have
groups as subtypes.
D. A partitioned group can contain both items and groups as components; a choice group can only
contain groups as components.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about syntax items is TRUE?
A. They must have a restriction list.
B. They have a maximum length of 1 byte.
C. The value must come from the input data.
D. They cannot be used as variable initiators.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The image here shows the components of a purchase order:
The application requires that the total number of items (TotalItems) in the Trailer Record equals the
sum of the quantity ordered (QtyOrdered) for each purchase order.
This verification can be performed by a component rule. Which component should have the
component rule?
A. TotalItems
B. QtyOrdered
C. Detail Record
D. Trailer Record
Answer: D

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NO.7 An application developer has a file which consists of fixed length records.
The first record is a header record followed by some number of detail records.
The number of detail records is expressed by a value found in the header record.
How does the developer define this type of data in WebSphere Transformation Extender?
A. Index the input based on the count in the header record.
B. Use a Map function to keep track of how many detail records there are.
C. Write a custom function to store the number of detail records in the map context.
D. Use a component rule to compare the current record to the value found in the header.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of a component rule? A component rule:
A. is used to create output.
B. is used for data validation.
C. can refer to any other component in the component list.
D. is always evaluated even if an optional component is not present in the data.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: C2080-474
Exam Name: IBM Tealeaf Customer Experience Management V8.7, Business Analysis
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Exam Code: C2070-583
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Exam Code: M2080-663
Exam Name: IBM Digital Marketing Optimization Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 The most persuading method to sell Tealeaf to prospects is:
A. Differentiate Tealeaf from competitors
B. Tell Tealeaf customer stories
C. Tell prospects about the benefits of Tealeaf
D. Sell products at a discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which marketing channel does IBM Impression Attribution primarily influence?
A. Email marketing
B. Display advertising
C. Social media
D. Mobile channels
Answer: B

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NO.3 What market factors is this target audience looking to address with the DMO solution?
A. Data security
B. Privacy concerns
C. Just-In-Time inventory
D. Data explosion and social media
Answer: D

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NO.4 The products in CBA Suite consists of all the following except:
A. cxReveal
B. cxView
C. cxResults
D. cxOverstat
E. cxImpact
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Name the 3 factors that determine the price of Tealeaf software:
A. Page count, #Tealeaf Users, and Products
B. Products. #Tealeaf Users, and #Units
C. #Units, Page Count and #Tealeaf Users
D. Products. Page Count and #Units
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the two primary benefits for companies using Tealeaf?
A. Marketing placement and IT performance
B. IT performance and data analytics
C. Conversion and retention
D. Data analytics and retention
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is one benefit listed in the value proposition for the DMO solution's customer profiles
(LIVE Profiles)?
A. Instant insight into opt-in permissions
B. Provide a complete picture of customer interactions
C. Detailed history of a customer's word-of-mouth activity
D. Ability to analyze customer sentiment and opinions
Answer: B

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NO.8 When it comes to DMO's digital marketing execution, what are some of the key capabilities?
A. Strategic planning and budgeting
B. Product recommendations and email targeting
C. Measuring customer interaction across their lifecycle
D. Generating a pipeline of qualified leads
Answer: B

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Exam Code: COG-500
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 Analytic Applications Developer
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Exam Code: A2180-373
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Business Monitor V6.2, Solution Development
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Exam Code: C4040-224
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Technical Sales Skills -v2
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NO.1 A customer wants to implement Linux on Power with dual VIO Servers on internal disk
controllers. Which of the following systems should be suggested?
A. Power 720
B. Power 730
C. PowerLinux 7R1
D. PowerLinux 7R2
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is considering running Linux in a virtualized environment and is evaluating the
differences between PowerVM and VMware.
Which of the following would be an advantage of PowerVM?
A. Number of virtual processors
B. Ability to move virtual machines
C. Ability to dynamically add CPU's
D. Ability to dynamically add memory
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer would like to consolidate their AIX and IBM i workloads that are currently running
on several POWER6 servers. They also want to consolidate storage and use Live Partition Mobility to
reduce planned downtime for server maintenance.
In addition to a Storwize V70001 PowerVM Enterprise Edition and dual VIO Servers, which of the
following configurations supports these requirements?
A. One POWER7+ server IBM i and AIX client LPARs
B. Two POWER7+ servers IBM i and AIX client LPARs
C. One POWER7+ server AIX client LPARs IBM i LPAR5 with internal storage
D. Two POWER7+ servers AIX client LPAR5 IBM i LPARs with internal storage
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is interested in virtualizing their environment. PowerVM and VMware are the
products whose hypervisors are best suited for their existing infrastructure.
Which advantage of PowerVM over VMware will most benefit their environment?
A. Industry leading hypervisor
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Consolidation of multiple workloads
D. Hypervisor components embedded in hardware
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer wants to implement 8 LPARs, 4 of IBM i and 4 of AIX. The customer wants the new
systems to be modular, configured to support their needs, and have room to expand if needed.
Which system is the minimum needed to support the customer requirements?
A. PureElex p220
B. PureElex p260
C. PureFlex p24L
D. PureFlex p460
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is one of the advantages of the 6-core Power 720 when compared to the 4-core Power
720?
A. Offers a P05 tier
B. Offers one 12X loop
C. Offers Dual VIO Servers
D. Offers more SAS Disk Bays in CEO
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer plans to deploy a 24x7 application, and is evaluating prospective solutions based
on which would offer the highest level of application availability.
Which of the following solutions should be presented to the customer for consideration?
A. Power 780 with Active Memory Sharing
B. Power 770 with Active Memory Mirroring
C. Power 760 with Active Memory Mirroring
D. Power 740 with Active Memory Management
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following will cause Live Partition Mobility validation to fail?
A. Less than one full processor
B. AME configured for the partition
C. Network connection through HEA
D. NPIV connection to SAN storage through VIOS
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-667
Exam Name: IBM Mobile Foundation Enterprise Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2180-607
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0, Integration Development
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Exam Code: A2010-651
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NO.1 An integration developer is testing a microflow which invokes several external services. This microflow
should take no longer than 30 seconds to complete. During the execution, a transaction timeout exception
was thrown. The developer suspects that one of the external services is taking too long to return the
response. Which of the following methods is the BEST approach to troubleshoot this problem?
A. Use a BPC Explorer to check execution time of the each invocation activity.
B. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer to check the duration of the service invocation.
C. Examine the SystemOut.log for the associating transaction exception stack-trace.
D. Implement a fault handler in the microflow and collect additional information through the exception
stack-trace.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?
A. All breakpoints in the Snippet are disabled.
B. Some breakpoints could be enabled in the Snippet.
C. The Snippet has two entry breakpoints, and one is disabled.
D. There is a configuration error because the Snippet has 2 entry breakpoints.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company is redesigning an existing business process. During implementation, the integration
developer realizes that the interface of an imported service is now different from the reference of the
business process. Which of the following is the BEST solution for supporting future releases?
A. Implement a bridge using a java component.
B. Implement an EJB that connects to both interfaces.
C. Use a data map to connect both interfaces.
D. Use a mediation flow to connect both interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A bank implements a loan processing service, Module A, which invokes services provided by several
other SCA applications. During the integration testing, the developer finds a problem with the Module A.
Since the implementation is very complex, the developer decides to enable cross-component trace to
troubleshoot. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The loan processing service, along with the associated modules have to be deployed onto the same
server.
B. All associated applications must be loaded in the current workspace in order for the cross-component
trace to work.
C. Cross-component trace can be enabled through the Server Logs view in the WebSphere Integration
Developer or from the administrative console.
D. If cross-component trace is enabled with data snapshot, the system captures the data sent in and
passed between SCA components in the WPRCSDB database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit. The exhibit shows a portion of a process state view monitoring an Account
Verification process instance.
The Credit Check Service activity failed because the target service was unavailable due to a system crash.
Since this failure happened during testing, the integration developer decided to manually enter sample
output data so that the process can be resumed. Which of the following actions will BEST accomplish this
task?
A. Select the "Skip Activity" option on Credit Check Service from the process state view.
B. Select Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit Checking Result as its target activity. Modify
the activity and resume.
C. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
D. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
E. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
F. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
G. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
H. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
Answer: F,G,H

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
accounts.movements has been initialized as a list of strings with these values {"0","0","0","0","0"}. Which
of the following statements about this scenario is TRUE?
A. The snippet has a compilation error.
B. The snippet enters into an infinite loop.
C. After the execution of the snippet, accounts.movements has these values {"0","1","2","0","0"}.
D. After the execution of the snippet, accounts.movements has these values {"0","1","2","3","0"}.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibits.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the configuration?
A. The Reply activity must be placed inside a fault handler.
B. Fault1 must be defined inside the interface that the process implements.
C. Once the Reply activity completes, the process will return Fault1 and always end immediately.
D. The Rethrow activity must be used along with the Reply activity in order to return Fault1 to the caller.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE regarding Service Component Architecture (SCA)?
A. Standard Java classes are used to store data.
B. Integration developers can concentrate more time on the details of the service implementation.
C. Without SCA, you must change application code to respond to service implementation changes.
D. SCA provides a single service component abstraction for services that may already be implemented as
business processes.
E. The service component definition is included in a file called <SERVICE_NAME>.SCDL that can have
zero or more interfaces associated with it.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: A2040-922
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: Developing IBM Lotus Domino 8.5.2 Applications: Advanced XPage Design)
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 John has a JavaScript function in a Client Side JavaScript library which he wrote to
parse some JSON
data and loop through the resulting objects. If he wanted to perform the same task in Server
Side
JavaScript what would be the most efficient action?
A. write a new function in Server Side JavaScript to perform the same task
B. copy the Client Side function into a Server Side JavaScript library, add the script library to
his XPage
and call the function from his Server Side
JavaScript
C. add the Client Side JavaScript library to his XPage and call the function from his server
side JavaScript
D. Server Side JavaScript does not work with JSON data
Answer: B

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NO.2 Lydia wants to create a JSON string to represent an array with three objects. Each
object has two
variables, vA and vB, set to different string values of "one", "two", "three", "four", "five", and
"six". What is
the proper syntax for the JSON string?
A. [ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]
B. "[ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]"
C. "[ { vA: one, vB: two },{ vA: three, vB: four },{ vA: five, vB: six } ]"
D. new Array(new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new
Object({
vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }));
Answer: B

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NO.3 Frank is attempting to add some functionality to an existing XPage: ?The XPage has a
Date Time
Picker edit box named "graduationDate" where users must enter their graduation date.
?Frank looks at
the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the edit box has the HTML attribute:
dojoType="ibm.xsp.widget.layout.DateTimeTextBoxContainer" ?Frank has added a combo
box where
users should choose their type of Job, from the options "Intern", "Graduate" or "Experienced".
?Frank
wants to add an onchange listener to the combo box, that checks the value of the graduation
date and
gives a browser alert popup dialog like "Intern and Graduate positions only available in the
first 2 years
after graduation". ?Frank has looked at the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the
Date Time
Picker edit box has a dojoType attribute. Which of the following code snippets should Frank
use to
retrieve the graduation date before triggering the alert dialog:
A. var graduationDate = getComponent("graduationDate").getValue();
B. var graduationDate = XSP.getElementById("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
C. var graduationDate = dojo.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
D. var graduationDate = dijit.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").getValue();
Answer: D

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NO.4 Dominic wants to implement the open source CSS framework called Blueprint in his
XPages application.
He does not want to include any other CSS framework resources which may exist on the
Domino server.
What is the best way to include all of the required CSS files in the XPages in his application?
A. In each XPage in the application add the required CSS files to the Resources section
B. Create a new theme which extends webstandard and then add each Blueprint CSS file via
a resource
definition
C. Create a new theme which extends oneui and then add each Blueprint CSS file via a
resource
definition
D. Create a new theme which does not have an extension property and then add each
Blueprint CSS file
via a resource definition
Answer: D

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NO.5 Aaron has created an XPages application that has a couple of XPages to surface the
same data to two
different application roles in two completely different user interfaces. Each role can
manipulate parts of
the data, but in both cases, the data must adhere to the same business logic and rules. What
would be
the best way for Aaron to implement the same business logic in each XPage.?
A. Create a common Client-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user
interface can
use to execute the business logic
B. Use a series of Custom Controls to hold the business logic and share them amongst the
XPages
C. Create a common Server-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user
interface can use to execute the business logic
D. The user interface and the business logic in an XPage can not easily be separated and
must be
maintained in each XPage
Answer: C

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NO.6 Jo wants to make a configurable list of countries available to the client side JavaScript
of her XPage for
use in various different fields on the web page. What would be the most efficient approach?
A. Add an @DbColumn to a server side script library to look up the country list in each place
it is required
B. Perform an AJAX request to get the country list from another XPage when it is required
using
dojo.xhrGet
C. Use the Output Script control to create a global Client Side JavaScript object to reference
when the list
is required
D. Add a @Decorum to a client side script library to look up the country list in each place it is
required
Answer: C

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NO.7 Rick creates a Server-Side JavaScript library, and defines a few global variables at the
beginning of the
library. The JavaScript in his XPage and in the JavaScript library modify those global
variables. The server the application runs on is heavily used, and the application settings are
set to Keep
Pages on Disk for best scalability. When the application executes, what is likely to happen?
A. The application will perform as expected.
B. The application will generate an error because you can not declare global Server-Side
JavaScript variables
C. The application will run, but the values of the globally defined variables may be lost when
the server's
JVM garbage collects variables, causing unexpected results.
D. The application will run, but every partial or full refresh will reset the values of the global
variables when it reloads the Server-Side JavaScript library.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Ernie wants to add the Dojo theme "soria" to the other styling on his XPage. Which
theme code will add
the appropriate class to the body tag of the outputted HTML?
A. <control>
<name>ViewRoot</name>
<property mode="override"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
B. <control>
<name>ViewBody</name>
<property mode="override"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
C. <control>
<name>ViewRoot</name>
<property mode="concat"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
D. <control>
<name>ViewBody</name>
<property mode="concat"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
Answer: C

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NO.9 Liz wants to make the user confirm their action when they try and delete a document
from the
application using a delete button. The confirmation message needs to display the title of the
document in
it. What is the best way to compute this message?
A. In the client side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
document1.getItemValueString('title')))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
B. In the client side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
"#{javascript:document1.getItemValueString('title')}"))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
C. In the server side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
document1.getItemValueString('title')))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
D. In the server side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
"#{javascript:document1.getItemValueString('title')}")
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
Answer: B

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NO.10 Elizabeth needs to parse the contents of a web page held on a remote server into an
applicationScope variable via the server side onclick event of a button using Server Side
JavaScript. How would she do this?
A. It is not possible to perform network operations from Server Side JavaScript
B. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Script Library and call it from
the onclick
event of the button.
C. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Agent and call it from the
onclick event of
the button.
D. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in the WebContent\WEB-INF\src folder
via the
Package Explorer and call it from the onclick
event of the button.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2020-706
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Statement Reporting Developer)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 A user created a snapshot of a report. Now they would like to send this snapshot for
approval. How
would a user view the snapshot that was created.?
A. Use the "View Snapshot" icon.
B. Go to Tools > Snapshots.
C. Go to Administration > Resources > View Snapshots.
D. Right-click on the Section Pane and select View Snapshots.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company compiled its 2010 Q2 quarterly report using an OLAP data source and a
query variable for
the quarter. They are now performing a rollover from the 2010 Q2 quarterly report to the 2010
Q3
quarterly report. How do you ensure that the OLAP connection for the new Q3 quarterly
report will
be updated with data from 2010 Q3?
A. Change the value for the quarter query variable from Q2 to Q3.
B. Update the value of the quarter field in the OLAP connection to Q3.
C. Change the ##S variable for the quarter to Q3.
D. Change the ##R variable for the quarter to Q3.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A user has certain objects tagged as custom group "Q1", but they should be tagged as
"Q2/Q3" only.
How can this be resolved?
A. In the Status by Object table in the Report Summary node, highlight the objects and
change the group
from "Q1" to "Q2/Q3".
B. Select the objects in the Section Pane, right-click, and select "Q2/Q3".
C. Navigate to each individual object, click on the "Set Customized Group" icon, deselect
"Q1" and select
"Q2/Q3" from the list.
D. Navigate to each individual object, click on the "Set Customized Group" icon and select
"Q2/Q3' from
the list.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have the administrator role and want to give a user special administrative tasks.
Which three tasks
can be granted to the user role by the administrator? (Choose three.)
A. Add query to Excel.
B. Modify properties of an object.
C. Create sections for the report.
D. Audit report.
E. Assign tasks to user.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.5 An administrator is working on a quarterly report and needs to add the new custom
group "Q2/Q3".
Where can the administrator add this new group?
A. in the "Customized Group" table under Administration > Resources
B. in the Report Summary node of the report
C. in any FSR object of the report, open the "Set Customized Group" icon and add a new
group to the list
D. the custom group is added to the workflow for the object
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two functions of a user role? (Choose two.)
A. Generate selected sections.
B. Create a workflow.
C. Work on assigned objects.
D. Create a report.
Answer: A, C

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NO.7 To use a workflow rule, which two variables are required to be set up? (Choose two.)
A. ##WRI
B. ##IRS
C. ##WR
D. ##WS
Answer: C, D

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NO.8 A client is loading data from an Excel spreadsheet but is not certain whether to enable
the Allow query
variables in the path and sheet name. What do you tell the client?
A. This should never be enabled; it is not a supported function in the current version.
B. This feature will provide a dynamic link to Excel source files during the rollover process.
C. This feature will enable you to link data across reports.
D. This feature needs to be used to be able to load an Excel sheet; if it is not selected, the
user will
receive an error when trying to complete the load.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The "Select the custom group to display" dropdown list in the Select Report dialog
allows a user to filter
the objects that will display when a report is loaded. How can this be enabled for a user?
A. in the Tools > Report Setup window
B. on the user's machine, a configuration key will need to be added to the FSR configuration
file
C. in the Task Permissions list in the Users table
D. in the Report Summary node of the report
Answer: B

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NO.10 The report team finished their first draft of their report and now they would like to send
a snapshot of this
report for review. How would a user create a snapshot?
A. Use the "Create Snapshot" icon.
B. Generate the entire report and check the "Save as Snapshot" option.
C. Every time a user saves, FSR will automatically create a new snapshot.
D. Go to Tools > Snapshots, then select the "Save as Snapshot" option.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2140-819
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Application Developer V8 Associate )
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which two are Session Bean interfaces.? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on
the server using
Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A

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NO.4 Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8
provides support
for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided
to make Web
2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of
servlets for the first
time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project?
(Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard
screens to
configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to
the web
project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" entry to the web
application
deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" annotation
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application
Developer workbench
window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench
window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A

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NO.8 A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the
debug perspective on
Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A

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NO.9 A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an
application is paused.
Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the
FacesContext
object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time
consuming.
What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view
attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the
Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out
of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will
print the
values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P2080-088
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Marketing Operations Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 In Unica Marketing Operations, a user can link to a Campaign only if:
A.The user is an administrator.
B.The user has both Unica Marketing Operations and Unica Campaign installed.
C.The user has Campaign permissions.
D.The user sets the Project to Linked status.
Answer: B

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NO.2 In Unica Marketing Operations, what is/are the key capability/capabilities for Accounts?
A.Define the hierarchy of accounts and subaccounts.
B.Fund or allocate money to the account, at the beginning of a fiscal period.
C.Track estimated and actual withdrawals from those accounts, by time period.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In Unica Marketing Operations, what type of budget planning is particularly useful if a
plan has
predictable expenses from year to year?
A.Bottom up budget.
B.Top down budget.
C.Master budget.
D.Cash budget.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following data redistribution methods generally results in the fastest query
times?
A.Co-located joins
B.Single redistribution joins
C.Double redistribution joins
D.Broadcast joins
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Unica Marketing Operations, how many templates can a customer have for digital
assets?
A.One
B.Three
C.Five
D.Ten
Answer: A

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NO.6 In Unica Marketing Operations, which of the following is a requirement for linked
Programs and Plans?
A.Must have the same owner.
B.Must have the same security policy.
C.Must have the same status.
D.Must have the same effective date.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In Unica Marketing Operations, a user can generate single-object reports, such as
Revision History or
Approval Responses.Where are these reports available for Projects, Programs and Plans?
A.Workflow tab
B.Summary tab
C.Custom tab
D.Analysis tab
Answer: D

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NO.8 In Unica Marketing Operations, where does a user - who has permission ?go to view
a Plan's status,
Program areas, and security policy?
A.Settings menu
B.Attachments tab
C.Summary tab
D.Project home page
Answer: C

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NO.9 In Unica Marketing Operations, where does a user go to view the marketing object
types for a Project?
A.In the Workflow.
B.In the Project Summary Tab.
C.In the marketing object template.
D.On the marketing object list page.
Answer: D

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NO.10 In a Unica Marketing Operations Project Details view, what tab displays all
modifications made to the
Project or Request since its creation?
A.Summary
B.Tracking
C.Analytics
D.Budget
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2040-925
Exam Name: IBM (Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Given the following scenario, what will occur if the sender attempts to recall a message
after 10 days
have elapsed since it was originally sent to the recipient: - The sender and recipient are on
the same mail
server - The server is configured to allow message recall - The recipient is a member of a
group policy
that allows message recall - The sender is a member of a group policy that does not allow
message recall
- The sender has an explicit policy that allows message recall Message recall is allowed for
14 days for
the sender - Message recall is allowed for 8 days for the recipient
A. The sender will be allowed to recall the sent message
B. The sender will not be allowed to recall the sent message
C. The sender will receive a non-delivery report back stating the message recall failed
D. The sender will be prompted that they have exceeded the maximum time allowed for
message recall
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Notes mail message is sent by Miguel to an Internet address through an adjacent
Domino domain
over NRPC that then sends mail to the Internet over SMTP. Miguel is now attempting to
recall the mail
message. Which of the following will be the result of his attempt?
A. He will receive an email that he cannot recall the email message
B. He will immediately receive a prompt that the message is not enabled for message recall
C. He will receive a message from the Internet recipients mail server that the message
cannot be recalled
D. He will successfully recall the message if it is allowed in the server configuration and
enabled in his
user policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image
files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A. Enforce ECLs
B. Create File Protection documents
C. Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D. Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

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NO.4 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one
of the following
describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option
available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The
administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary
directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary
directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When creating the ID Vault for your domain, which of the following cannot be the name
of the vault?
A. The name of the server the vault is created on
B. The name of the administrator creating the vault
C. The name of the group that will manage the id vault
D. The same as an organizational unit used in the Domino domain
Answer: D

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NO.6 In order for Peggy to establish alternate message recall settings on a per server basis,
which of the
following is the best solution?
A. Configure the message recall settings in an organization level policy
B. Configure the message recall settings in each server's notes.ini file
C. Configure the message recall settings in each server configuration document
D. Configure the message recall settings in explicit policies and manually apply to users
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which ONE of the following is required when setting up transactional logging on a
server?
A. Enable Transactional Logging in the server document.
B. Add TRANS_LOG=1 to the server's NOTES.INI file.
C. Create a Transactional Logging document in the Directory Catalog.
D. Modify the NOTES.INI log settings to read LOG=LOG.NSF, TRANSLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following are optional advanced services that must be enabled manually
when first
configuring and installing the Domino server?
A. SMTP server
B. Agent Manager
C. Calendar Connector
D. DOLS (Domino Off-Line Services)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Chaz, the Domino administrator, has noticed performance issues when LDAP
searches are being
performed against the Domino Directory. Which of the following is the best offered solution to
improve
performance?
A. Extend the LDAP schema to add new attributes
B. Create a full text index of the Domino Directory
C. Configure Directory Assistance to load all users into memory in advance
D. Delete the ($LDAP) view in the Domino Directory and let it rebuild automatically
Answer: B

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NO.10 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of
the following?
A. Password database
B. Certifier document
C. Password hash file
D. Certifier database
Answer: B

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NO.11 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which
Domino server
hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not
configured?
A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Answer: A

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NO.12 In order to create a Domino cluster, which rights are required for you to have to the
Domino Directory.?
A. Editor access rights and ClusterModifier role
B. Reader access rights and ServerWriter and ServerManager roles
C. Designer access rights and ClusterCreator and ClusterModifier roles
D. Author access and Delete Documents rights and the ServerModifier and ServerCreator
roles
Answer: D

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NO.13 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary
directory must only
be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of mbiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory
that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.14 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes
the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A. There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B. Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who
share a common
organizational certifier.
C. Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory.
Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D. Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users
and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.15 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document
placed?
A. NAMES.NSF
B. CERTLOG.NSF
C. CATALOG.NSF
D. DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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