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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.2 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.5 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.6 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.7 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.9 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.10 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.11 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.12 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.13 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.15 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.16 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.17 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.18 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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Exam Code: 250-251
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which conditions are recommended for a successful VCS patch installation? (Choose two.)
A.The clustered application must be shut down.
B.VCS must be shut down only on the server being patched.
C.VCS must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
D.GAB and LLT must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
E.GAB and LLT must remain running and connected.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 Which components are installed when you execute the installvcs script? (Choose two.)
A.bundled agents
B.database agents
C.cluster file system
D.GAB driver
E.cluster volume manager
Answer:A D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the violation trigger?
A.A violation trigger must be written as a shell script.
B.A violation trigger and notification are mutually exclusive.
C.A violation trigger is dependent on notification to work.
D.A violation trigger is automatically executed when events occur.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which text files are created at the end of a successful run of installvcs -installonly? (Choose three.)
A.log
B.response
C.gabtab
D.llttab
E.summary
Answer:A B E

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NO.5 Which attribute enables VCS to bring a resource online after it goes offline unexpectedly and before
faulting the resource?
A.RestartLimit
B.OnlineRestartLimit
C.AutoRestartLimit
D.OnlineRetryLimit
Answer:A

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NO.6 You are installing a VCS upgrade that does not require a system reboot, but does require a VCS
restart. Which method maximizes user access to the clustered applications during the upgrade?
A.use the VCS rolling upgrade option which restarts VCS transparently
B.stop VCS using the orce option and then restart VCS on each system
C.evacuate service groups while upgrading one system at a time
D.stop VCS using the all option and then restart VCS on each system
Answer:B

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NO.7 VCS is to be installed in a secure environment where remote installation between systems is
impossible. The VCS configuration parameters were captured in a file using the installation script on the
first system. What can be used to read the contents of the configuration file when executing locally on the
remaining systems?
A.-autoconfig
B.-configfile
C.-vcsconfig
D.-responsefile
Answer:D

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NO.8 During a test of a NIC resource the VCS engine log indicates that the service group and the IP resource
enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the ONLINE state after
the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt
to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which VCS resource attribute setting prevents VCS from interpreting a Monitor entry point timeout as a
resource fault?
A.MonitorFault=0
B.MonitorFaultTimeout=240
C.FaultMonitor=240
D.FaultOnMonitor=4
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which directive in the llttab file defines a network interface for a heartbeat?
A.nic
B.link
C.heartbeat
D.hbdev
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.AutoStart
B.ConfInterval
C.ConfTimeout
D.MonitorInterval
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B D

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NO.12 Which attributes impact service group failover? (Choose three.)
A.FailOver
B.AutoFailOver
C.Faulted
D.FaultPropagation
E.Frozen
Answer:B D E

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NO.13 You are adding a system to a running cluster. You have successfully performed these steps on the
system that you are adding: 1. installed, configured, and tested all application resources required 2.
installed VCS 3. configured and started VCS communications (LLT and GAB) What is the next step that
you perform?
A.update the resource attributes to enable resources to run on the new system
B.update the service group attributes to enable groups to run on the new system
C.change the cluster attribute for VCS user names to match accounts on the new system
D.change the owner of the system attributes so that all cluster systems are the same
Answer:B

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NO.14 What is the default level of authorization of a new VCS user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which feature of VCS can prevent overloading of a system's resources in the event of service group
failover?
A.Parallel Service Groups
B.Capacities
C.Limits
D.Load Failover Policy
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.Flags
B.RestartLimit
C.ToleranceLimit
D.OfflineTimeout
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B C

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NO.17 When preparing to install VCS on the S1 and S2 systems, what should you do to verify software
compatibility? (Choose three.)
A.check the VCS release notes for supported software
B.run the installvcs recheck S1 S2 command
C.let the installvcs script check compatibility at install
D.run the installvcs ompat S1 S2 command
E.check the Symantec Enterprise Support website
Answer:A B E

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NO.18 Under which condition can a service group be AutoDisabled?
A.when hashadow cannot restart HAD on a system
B.when the system is in a jeopardy membership
C.when a firm service group dependency exists between two service groups and the parent service group
fails
D.when a firm service group dependency exists between two service groups and the child service group
fails
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which types of monitoring can be performed on Oracle resources? (Choose two.)
A.detail monitoring
B.basic level monitoring
C.kernel level monitoring
D.specific monitoring
E.service monitoring
Answer:A B

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NO.20 Which procedure must be followed to remove the resource type TypeA from an active VCS cluster?
A.remove all resources of TypeA, remove TypeA, and remove TypeA packages
B.remove TypeA, then execute the hatype esync command
C.stop VCS, remove all resources of TypeA, and start VCS
D.execute the hatype -remove command which will remove all the resources
Answer:A

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Exam Code: ST0-052
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.2 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.3 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.10 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.13 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.18 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.19 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

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NO.21 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.22 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.23 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

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NO.24 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

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NO.26 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

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NO.27 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

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NO.28 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.29 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.30 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-10X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
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Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.4 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.8 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.16 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.19 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-270
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters.
What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware
upgrade occurred?
A. Media ID generation
B. Media ID display
C. media type mapping
D. barcode rules
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

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NO.3 How long will a failed restore job remain in an Incomplete state prior to being moved to a Done state?
A. one day
B. three days
C. seven days
D. until the administrator cancels the restore job
Answer: C

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NO.4 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.5 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

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NO.6 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

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NO.10 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.13 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator has created three BasicDisk storage units within the NetBackup Administration
Console (STU-A, STU-B, and STU-C). The administrator needs to create a backup policy that evenly
rotates use of each of these storage units during backup.
How can the policies or storage units be set up to accomplish this?
A. set up each of the policies to use "Any Available" storage unit
B. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Failover" option for storage unit selection
C. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Least recently selected storage unit" option
D. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Choose storage units based on order specified
above" option
Answer: C

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NO.17 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.20 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-309
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.5 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.6 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.7 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.10 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9
for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.15 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ASC-012
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC High Availablity Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer has a large high-availability environment comprising of 90 Veritas Cluster Server (VCS)
clusters across 3 sites. Thier business continuity group requires a monthly set of reports showing the
availability and downtime for each service that is clustered. What solution should you recommend?
A. Storage Foundation Manager
B. Veritas Operations Manager
C. Global Cluster Manager
D. VCS webGUI
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two should be captured in the Symantec Design Report Questionnaire for a VCS or SF/HA
Implementation Service? (Select two.)
A.Prerequisites for implementing VCS
B.Details of the physical environment, including details of the servers, O/S networks and storage that will
be deployed in the solution
C.List of VCS agents that will be deployed in the solution, including requirements for custom agents
where applicable
D.List of the service groups, resources and dependencies that are to be configured in the solution
E.Details of the applications to be clustered, including service level objectives
Answer: Pending

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NO.3 In a 2-node 5.1 Replicated Data Cluster using VVR, which option should be discussed with the
customer?
A. setting the AutoFailover service group attribute to 2
B. using SystemZones for the service groups
C. setting the ClusterFailOverPolicy service group attribute to Manual
D. using Hybrid service groups for the replication service group
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the recommended project phases for VCS or SF/HA Implementation Services, in the right
order?
A. Assess, Design, Transform, Operate (ADTO)
B. Design, Installation, Configuration, Testing, Project Close
C. Planning and Design, Installation and Configuration, Testing, Project handover and close
D. Project Initiation and Planning, Design, Implementation and Testing, Operations Handover, Project
Close
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following tools should you primarily use to perform pre-installation checks for implementing
VCS or SF/HA 5.1?
A. Common Product Installer (CPI)
B. SORT Installation and Upgrade Assessment
C. VRTS Explorer
D. VCS Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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