2013年10月30日星期三

VMware certification VCP410-DT the latest examination questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: VCP410-DT
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 4 - Deskto)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 To use previously created desktop virtual machines, which type of desktop pool should the View
administrator create?
A. automated desktop pool
B. manual desktop pool
C. persistent desktop pool
D. custom desktop pool
Answer: B

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NO.2 A new SSL certificate has been installed on the View Security Server.
Which step must be completed to ensure that the Security Server uses the new certificate?
A. restart the VMware View Connection Server service
B. restart the VMware View Security Server service
C. start the newly created SSL_Certificate service
D. edit the locked.properties file to enable the new SSL certificate
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company opens a new remote office with five PCoIP-enabled thin clients. The administrator
configures the clients to connect to the View Security Server installed at headquarters.
Which setting must the administrator configure on the View Security Server to make sure PCoIP is routed
to the internal network?
A. PCoIP External URL
B. PCoIP Gateway URL
C. PCoIP Gateway Address
D. External URL
Answer: A

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NO.4 A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View
administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a
dedicated printer.
Which View feature meets these requirements?
A. ThinPrint-based printing
B. Location-based printing
C. Central-based printing
D. Local-based printing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three Replica Servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
A. Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
B. Three Replica Servers can result in client connection problems.
C. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
D. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp repository.
The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository?
(Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from the
View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original
install media for the legacy application disappears.
Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp
package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all
users?
A. Side by Side update
B. SBmerge
C. ThinApp Merge
D. AppSync
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 4.5
Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message
from the View Client that indicates The connection to the remote computer ended.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The Security Server is not configured to accept PCoIP connection remotely.
B. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set to an incorrect address.
C. The VPN connection was not established prior to the user connecting to the View environment.
D. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set using an incorrect port.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the virtualization software requirements for View Connection Server?
A. vSphere 4.0 Update 2 or vSphere 4.1
B. vSphere 4.0 Update 1 or vSphere 4.1
C. VMware Infrastructure 3.5 Update 4 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 5 D. VMware Infrastructure
3.5 Update 3 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 3
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer provides a list of requirements for the virtual desktop environment for consideration during a
pre-implementation discussion.
Which three customer requirements will be satisfied by the View Connection Server in its role as a
connection broker? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication
B. desktop provisioning
C. connection negotiation between the client and the virtual desktop
D. desktop assignment, if available
E. USB redirection
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 4.6, the option to set the PCoIP External
URL of the Security Server is not available from View Administrator.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The View Security Server was not upgraded to version 4.6.
B. The External URL should have been set during the installation of the View Security Server.
C. The View Security Server service is not running on the View Connection Server.
D. The External URL was not configured from the View Security Server Management Interface.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 A new Connection Server has been added to the View environment. View administrators and clients
cannot connect to that new Connection Server. However, connectivity to the pre-existing Connection
Servers remains active.
Which three configurations should be verified to diagnose the problem.? (Choose three.)
A. that you can connect directly to the new Connection Server using telnet on port 80
B. that the View Connection Server services are running on the newly added Connection Server
C. that the IP address for the new Connection Server has not changed on the server or within DNS
D. that the Security Server associated with the Connection Server is running
E. that the vCenter Server system associated with the Connection Server is running
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4 (VCP-410日本語版))
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Total Q&A: 320 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.2 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか (二つ
選んでください) 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.4 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか(二つ選んでください)?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか(二つ選んでください) 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.7 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか (三つ
選んでください)??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.9 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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NO.10 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か(二つ選んでください) 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.2 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか (三つ
選んでください)??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか (二つ
選んでください) 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.5 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.6 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.7 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か(二つ選んでください) 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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NO.9 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか(二つ選んでください) 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか(二つ選んでください)?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: DP-021W
Exam Name: Veritas (Design of Data Protection Solutions for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to
store 1-GB 'product' data files for the marketing department. The marketing department
already has 6,000 product data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add
about 500 product files per week for the next 30 weeks. After files are added they are
never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday,
and the backup must be performed between 12:01a.m Saturday and Noon Saturday (a
36-hour window)
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A. teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B. single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C. 100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D. 10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose
three)
A using supported server platforms
B. using agents for databases
C. using mirror snapshots for backups
D. using a private backup network
Answer: BCD

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NO.3 Which major shift in business direction most significantly affects for the highest levels of
Data Protection?
A. customer self-service Web applications
B. staff reduction
C. automated workgroup processes
D. revenue recognition
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup
use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL,
Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A. There will be two reboots required one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one
reboot for NetBackup installation
B. There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed
C. There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not
require a separate reboot.
D. There will be a need for NetBackup to be properly installed
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA
logical(software-related)
environmental(software-related)
D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system administrator has communicated an interest in using the NetBackup
FlashBackup feature of the Advanced Client. What key technical information must you
gather in order to know whether this feature would be appropriate.
A. number of files on the file system
B. frequency of backups needed
C. density of the tapes being used for backups
D. age of the files on the file system
Answer: A

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NO.8 A large number of Windows 2003 clients are failing with status code 11. it is suspected
that the snapshot process is failing. In reviewing the Activity Monitor logs it is found that
backups of certain clients are very slow. These clients host a large number of small files.
What NetBackup feature helps resolve this issue?
A. VNETD
B. VOPIED
C. multiplexing
D. multistreaming
Answer: C

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NO.9 Recovery Time Objectives address which element?
A. Databases must be recovered to the last fully committed transition.
B. Cold database backups must be performed every day.
C. The data in different applications may have different recovery requirements
D. Flat file and database are to be treated the same in terms of importance.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have analyzed the current configuration of a data protection environment.
You now need to determine your expectations for future growth.
Which type of analysis do you perform?
A. Gap Analysis
B. Storage Checkpoint analysis
C. GANTT chart analysis
D. PERT chart analysis
Answer: A

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NO.11 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design,
which three items should be determined? (choose three)
A. media server backup performance
B. network and SAN data rates
C. capacity of tape media
D. client backup windows
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already
analyzedpreferences and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (choose
two).
A. information in the SLA
B. network infrastructure
C. number of employees
D. number of tapes purchased
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 You have already designed a proposed solution for a department's data protection
requirement. Now you want to validate the design with the department
Which change in the department's environment affects your design the most?
A. increased server memory capacity
B. upgrades the Master Server
C. increased distance between clients and servers
D. a dedicated backup network
Answer: D

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NO.14 In which case will the FlashBackup feature be of benefit?
A. a large Oracle database that contains lots of data
B. a server with file system that are 80% full, containing several million files each
C. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing old files
D. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing a few files, each several
hundred MB
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media
server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
Answer: B

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NO.16 Your current Netbackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes .
Each tape is capable of holding 40GB of data. You are putting in a new library with
modem drives capable of holding 300GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity
of your old library to meet future growth.
What is the minimum of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A. 80
B. 110
C. 140
D. 170
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups
D. incremental backups
Answer: B

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NO.19 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five
hundred clients. Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the
capacity of housing an additional 1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup
environment? (choose three)
A. the operating system version of clients
B. SAN infrastructure available
C. cooling capacity of new datacenter
D. network connectivity between the datacenters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.20 In reviewing the bpbkar logs on a NetBackup client to investigate slow backups it is
noticed that several drives are being backed up concurrently rather than sequentially.
Each of the logical drives is a partition on a single physical disk drive.
Which is disabled to avoid "disk thrashing" on this client and other similarly configured
clients?
A. multistreaming
B. True Image Restore
C. parallel backups
D. multiplexing
Answer: A

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Exam Code: TB0-120
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Enterprise Message Service™ 6 Certification Exam)
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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 Which command displays message count delivered to a queue receiver?
A. Show consumers
B. Show receivers
C. Show connections
D. Show users
Answer: A

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NO.2 A dynamic queue named q1 has been created by an EMS client.
What will be the result of executing the following command: create queue q1?
A. The command will fail saying the queue already exists.
B. The command will fail if queue has connected receivers.
C. The command will succeed and queue will be promoted to static.
D. The command will succeed and dynamic queue will be renamed.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three commands will update EMS configuration files when an exclusive commit command is
issued from EMS? (Choose three.)
A. set server client trace=enabled
B. set server password=password
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set server track_message_ids=enabled
E. set server routing=enabled
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which two actions are most likely to improve EMS server performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Adding an additional CPU to the server running EMS
B. Improving physical disk performance
C. Switching from a file-based store to a database store
D. Increasing network I/O capacity on the server
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the listen parameter? (Choose two.)
A. The listen parameter is set in the tibemsd.conf file.
B. Multiple listen parameters can be set in the TIBCO EMS configuration file.
C. TCP is the only protocol supported in the listen parameter.
D. The listen parameter is set in the transports, conf file.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 How does a backup fault-tolerant server detect a failure of the primary fault-tolerant server?
A. TCP heartbeats sent from the primary server
B. TCP heartbeats sent from the backup server
C. Multicast heartbeats sent from the primary server
D. Multicast heartbeats sent from the backup server
Answer: A

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NO.7 Atopic sales, topic is bridged to two queues: FINANCE.Q and AUDIT.Q. Ten messages are sent on the
topic SALES.TOPIC. A consumer reads ten messages from FINANCE.Q.
How many messages are now in the AUDIT.Q?
A. zero
B. five
C. ten
D. twenty
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two conditions can cause messages in a queue to be moved to the undelivered queue? (Choose
two.)
A. The number of delivery attempts has reached the limit defined for the queue.
B. The number of pending messages has reached the limit defined for the queue.
C. The length of time the message has been retained in the queue has exceeded the limit defined for the
queue.
D. The overflow policy for the queue has been set to discard the oldest messages.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about routing queue messages? (Choose two.)
A. Routed queue messages can travel to adjacent servers without reaching the home queue.
B. Each server in the route path must have its queue defined as global.
C. The concept of zones and hops does not apply to queue messages.
D. Queue messages can travel multiple hops.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which command creates a connection factory of type queue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.11 An EMS server and client are receiving heartbeats. Given the following EMS server settings:
-client_timeout_server_connection = 20 seconds -server_timeout_client_connection = 10 seconds
What are two possible outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
B. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
C. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
D. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 The company naming standard states that all queue names must start with the letter C.
How can the administrator of the EMS server enforce this naming standard for dynamic queues?
A. By disabling creation of dynamic destinations in the tibemsd.conf file
B. By changing create-destination permission for users
C. By having c. > as the only entry with a wildcard in the queues.conf file
D. By setting a rule to add c. as a prefix to all dynamic queues
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about synchronous and asynchronous message consumption?
(Choose two.)
A. For synchronous consumption, the message consumer explicitly invokes a receive call on the topic or
queue.
B. The consumer can receive messages synchronously by registering a synchronous message listener to
receive the messages.
C. When asynchronously receiving messages, the consumer remains blocked until a message arrives.
D. For asynchronous consumption, a message listener can be implemented that serves as an
asynchronous event handler for messages.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about selector functions? (Choose two.)
A. A selector's conditional expression can refer to values of the message body.
B. They are available for use in the bridging functions, helping to reduce unnecessary network traffic.
C. They are useful when used in conjunction with topic browser functions.
D. They are available to control the flow of messages along a route.
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 When a single message consumer is connected with an EMS server, which action can be used to
improve message consumption?
A. Enabling automatic acknowledge of all messages by the session
B. Changing delivery mode from PERSISTENT to NON_PERSISTENT
C. Increasing the prefetch value
D. Creating another instance of EMS server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-240
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX)
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NO.1 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.3 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.4 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

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NO.7 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A. removes size restrictions
B. provides load balancing
C. better usage of space
D. simplifies administration
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

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NO.10 Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers,
configuration copies, and kernel logs?
A. the public region
B. the private region
C. the virtual region
D. the CDS region
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)
A. complete
B. partial
C. log
D. sparse
E. partition
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.14 The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After
selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?
A. Tools -> Volume View
B. Tools -> Volume -> View
C. Actions -> Volume -> View
D. Actions -> Volume View
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxassist remove mirror
B. vxdisk
C. vxremove mirror
D. vxplex
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and
GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the
"online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. The disk is in the free disk pool.
B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.
C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.
D. The disk is currently deported on another system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.18 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

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NO.19 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-265
Exam Name: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX(NBU 6.5))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 How do you ensure that your policies are backing up all volumes/file systems on all of your clients?
A.Use bp_testall
B.Use bpconfirm
C.Use check_coverage
D.Check the Backup_All option in every policy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which servers can be added to a server group? (Choose three.)
A.Master server
B.Media server
C.EMM server
D.NDMP tape server
E.NOM server
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 What is the minimum supported client version for NetBackup 6.5?
A.3.4
B.4.5
C.4.5 FP6
D.5.x
Answer: D

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NO.4 Media ID A00001 continues to have various errors. You are unsure if you are having problems with
this tape or a specific tape drive.
Which file can be reviewed to see when the error occured and which tape drive was being used?
A.errors
B.mediaDB
C.bpdm log
D.bpbkar log
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.Amaster server may use more than one EMM server.
D.Amaster server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation?
(Choose three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 After replacing a tape drive, which NetBackup command can you run to verify the operating system is
seeing the new tape drive?
A.scan -all
B.scan -os
C.tape -scan
D.tape -config
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are functions of the EMM server? (Choose three.)
A.It provides a decentralized data store.
B.It provides a centralized data store.
C.It manages the allocation of resources.
D.It communicates with media servers.
E.It stores the image catalog.
Answer: BCD

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NO.9 The Inventory Robot function within the NetBackup Administration console is used to _____.
A.List ejected tapes
B.Delete bad media
C.Unfreeze frozen media
D.Update the volume configuration
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have a NetBackup installation where the master and EMM servers are two separate servers.
Which NetBackup components are found on the EMM server?
A.nbemm, nbproxy, pbx, nbrb
B.nbemm, nbjm, pbx, nbproxy
C.nbemm, pbx, nbrb, nbjm
D.nbemm, nbproxy, nbrb, nbjm
Answer: A

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NO.11 As part of a hot catalog backup, which NetBackup components are backed up? (Choose three.)
A.EMM database
B.Image database
C.NOM database
D.configuration files
E.hosts file
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 You are at a disaster recovery site, testing restores from your offsite duplicate tapes. To begin
performing restores, you must change the duplicate copies to be the primary copy.
Which commands can you use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A.bprecover
B.bpchangeprimary
C.bpimage
D.bpexpdate
E.bprestore
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which operating systems are supported as clients in NetBackup 6.5? (Choose three.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows NT 4.0 SP6
C.Windows 2003
D.Solaris 7
E.Solaris 9
Answer: ACE

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NO.14 Which statement is true about a policy that has its start window set to daily from 8:00 p.m. to 11:00
p.m.?
A.Backups will always start at 8:00 p.m.
B.Backups will never run past 11:00 p.m.
C.Backups will never start after 11:00 p.m.
D.Backups will pause at 11:00 p.m.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statements are true about a media server upgrade from version 6.0 to version 6.5? (Choose
three.)
A.All clients must be on 6.5 if their media server is on 6.5.
B.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 5.1.
C.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 6.0.
D.The master server can be upgraded to 6.5 and media servers can remain at 6.0.
E.The media server can be upgraded to 6.5 and the master server can remain at 6.0.
Answer: BCD

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NO.16 Which processes can run on a media server? (Choose three.)
A.bpbrm
B.bpdm
C.bprd
D.bpdbm
E.bptm
Answer: ABE

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NO.17 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.Within the EMM database.
B.On the EMM server in binary format.
C.On the master server in binary format.
D.Within the master server's Sybase database.
Answer: C

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NO.18 When installing NetBackup 6.5, which documents should be reviewed before installing the
application?
(Choose three.)
A.Release Notes
B.Hardware Compatability Guide
C.Hardware Supported List
D.Operating System Compatability Guide
E.Operating System Supported List
Answer: ABD

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NO.19 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which log do you monitor to determine if multiplexing could improve performance?
A.bptm
B.bprd
C.nbjob
D.nbpem
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which information is included in the disaster recovery e-mail sent by the hot catalog backup?
A.EMM server, Backup Media, DR file name and location
B.EMM server, Recovery Media, DR file name and location
C.Media Server, Critical Backup Recovery Media, DR file name and location
D.Media Server, Catalog Recovery Media, DR file name and location
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which NetBackup process is responsible for reading data from the client during a backup?
A.bprd
B.bpcd
C.bpbkar32
D.bpbackup
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which command can be used to configure tape drives and robotic devices?
A.tpautoconfig
B.tpconfig
C.tpreq
D.tpext
Answer: B

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NO.24 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.
ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.
Three tape drives are available in the storage unit.
Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.
The client specified has five local file systems with no exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be active (versus queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.5
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer: ACE

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NO.26 Which NetBackup components make up IRM?
A.nbpem, nbjobd, nbgenjob
B.nbpem, nbjm, nbrb
C.nbpem, nbgenjob, nbjm
D.nbpem, nbrb, nbsl
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which command is used to view NetBackup processes?
A.bpps
B.bpnos
C.bpverify
D.bpsl
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A.All media server installations require a server license key.
B.All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C.All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D.All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
E.All media server installations require a tape drive be configured on the system.
Answer: AC

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NO.29 Which statement is true about storage lifecycles?
A.Staged capacity managed retention is only available on disk storage units.
B.Backups are guaranteed to remain on the disk for the desired cache period.
C.Data classifications are required if backing up to tape storage units.
D.Backup types include backup, duplicate, and catalog.
Answer: A

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NO.30 A tape is automatically frozen when NetBackup attempts to use it for a policy backup.
Which condition can cause this?
A.The tape is full.
B.The tape has expired.
C.The tape is already in use.
D.The tape has been used for NetBackup catalogs.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-312
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 246 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.3 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.9 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.10 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.16 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

Symantec   250-312   250-312

NO.18 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

Symantec   250-312   250-312

NO.21 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.22 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.23 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.24 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.25 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.27 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.29 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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NO.30 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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